Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent falls?

• A. Keep the client's bed in the lowest position.
• B. Encourage the client to wear non-slip socks.
• C. Place a fall risk sign on the client's door.
• D. Use a gait belt when ambulating the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Keeping the client's bed in the lowest position is an essential measure to prevent falls. Lowering the bed reduces the risk of injury if the client falls out of bed by decreasing the distance of the fall. Encouraging the client to wear non-slip socks (Choice B) may help prevent slips on smooth surfaces but does not address the risk of falls in other scenarios. Placing a fall risk sign on the client's door (Choice C) alone does not actively prevent falls but serves as a warning. Using a gait belt when ambulating the client (Choice D) is important for assisting with mobility but does not directly address fall prevention in the client's environment.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement when working with the client?

• A. Airborne
• B. Droplet
• C. Protective
• D. Contact

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious droplets. Airborne precautions involve wearing a mask, such as an N95 respirator, to protect against inhaling infectious particles. Droplet precautions are for diseases spread through respiratory droplets larger than those in airborne transmission, such as influenza. Protective precautions are not specific to respiratory infections and are more general measures to protect patients from harm. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA or C. diff infections, not for tuberculosis.

3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

4. The client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Pain in the affected leg
• B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Swelling in the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication where a blood clot travels to the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention. While pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT, shortness of breath suggests a more critical situation that necessitates urgent intervention.

5. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.4
• B. Sodium 140
• C. Calcium 8.6
• D. Magnesium 2.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

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