HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
2. The nurse manager is reviewing medication documentation. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to include in teaching?
- A. Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.
- B. Avoid abbreviating medication names to prevent errors.
- C. Use generic names only for medications.
- D. Document the dosage, route of administration, and complete medication name.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.' When documenting medications, it is crucial to use the complete name to avoid confusion and errors. Abbreviating medication names (choice B) can lead to misinterpretation and errors in medication administration. Using generic names only for medications (choice C) may not provide enough specificity, leading to potential medication errors. While documenting the dosage and route of administration is important, it is also vital to include the complete medication name (choice D) for accurate record-keeping and to ensure clarity in medication administration.
3. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?
- A. 4-5 times per hour
- B. 2-3 times per hour
- C. 6-7 times per hour
- D. 8-10 times per hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent further skin breakdown?
- A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to the ulcer.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Use a donut-shaped cushion when the client is sitting.
- D. Massage the area around the ulcer to promote circulation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is the most appropriate action to prevent further skin breakdown in a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. This practice helps relieve pressure on the affected area, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing (Choice A) may be beneficial for wound healing but is not the initial preventive measure. Using a donut-shaped cushion (Choice C) can actually increase pressure on the sacrum and worsen the condition. Massaging the area around the ulcer (Choice D) can further damage delicate skin and tissues, leading to more harm instead of prevention.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 83 gtt/min
- B. 125 gtt/min
- C. 100 gtt/min
- D. 75 gtt/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.
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