HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
2. The nurse is teaching an elderly client how to use MDIs (multi-dose inhalers). The nurse is concerned that the client is unable to coordinate the release of the medication with the inhalation phase. What is the nurse's best recommendation to improve the delivery of the medication?
- A. Nebulized treatments for home care
- B. Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister
- C. Asking a family member to assist the client with the MDI
- D. Requesting a visiting nurse to follow the client at home
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister is the best recommendation in this scenario. The spacer device helps to improve coordination and medication delivery by allowing the client more time to inhale the medication effectively. Nebulized treatments for home care (Choice A) involve a different delivery method and are not directly related to improving coordination with MDIs. Asking a family member to assist (Choice C) may not address the core issue of coordination between releasing the medication and inhalation. Requesting a visiting nurse (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client can improve coordination with the spacer device.
3. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will
- A. Improve the quality of care
- B. Decrease staff turnover
- C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
- D. Improve team morale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.
4. During a patient assessment, which principle should be a priority?
- A. Foot care is always important.
- B. Daily bathing is always important.
- C. Hygiene needs are always important.
- D. Critical thinking is always important.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a patient assessment, critical thinking is a priority because a patient's condition can change rapidly, necessitating continuous critical thinking and adaptation of nursing interventions. While foot care, daily bathing, and hygiene needs are important components of patient care, they may not always take precedence over critical thinking, which guides the nurse in making timely and appropriate decisions based on the patient's current condition and needs. Therefore, critical thinking stands out as the most crucial principle during patient assessments.
5. The healthcare provider is providing postoperative care to a client who had a submucosal resection (SMR) for a deviated septum. The healthcare provider should monitor for what complication associated with this type of surgery?
- A. Occipital headache
- B. Periorbital crepitus
- C. Expectoration of blood
- D. Changes in vocalization
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Expectoration of blood is a potential complication following SMR surgery, as it may indicate bleeding postoperatively. In contrast, occipital headache (choice A) is not a common complication associated with SMR surgery. Periorbital crepitus (choice B) is more related to facial fractures or certain infections rather than SMR surgery. Changes in vocalization (choice D) are not typically associated with complications following SMR surgery.
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