Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Renal failure
• C. Gastric bleeding
• D. Heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client with vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client on the sequence of foods to eat first
• B. Offer small-handle utensils for the client to use
• C. Thicken liquids served to the client
• D. Use a clock pattern to indicate food placement on the client's plate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client has vision loss, using a clock pattern to describe food placement on the plate can facilitate independent eating. This method enables the client to locate different food items based on their positions, enhancing self-feeding abilities. Instructing the client on the sequence of foods to eat first (Choice A) may not address the visual impairment directly. Providing small-handle utensils (Choice B) can be helpful for clients with limited dexterity but may not specifically assist a client with vision loss. Thickening liquids (Choice C) is more relevant for clients with dysphagia, not vision loss.

4. A client admitted with sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse to use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?

• A. Tell me how you are feeling right now.
• B. Describe the pain you are experiencing.
• C. Can you tell me more about your back pain?
• D. When did the pain start and how severe is it?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Describe the pain you are experiencing.' This question is the most effective as it prompts the client to provide detailed information about the nature of the pain, including its characteristics, intensity, and location. This detailed description can help the nurse in assessing the possible cause and severity of the pain. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective as they are either too general ('Tell me how you are feeling right now'), redundant ('Can you tell me more about your back pain?'), or focused only on timing and severity ('When did the pain start and how severe is it?').

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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