Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

2. A nurse is evaluating teaching about nutrition with the guardians of an 11-year-old child. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “Our child wants to eat as much as we do, but we’re afraid it will lead to becoming overweight.”
• B. “Our child skips lunch sometimes, but we figure it’s okay as long as we eat a healthy breakfast and dinner.”
• C. “We limit fast-food restaurant meals to three times a week now.”
• D. “We reward school achievements with a point system instead of pizza or ice cream.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rewarding school achievements with a point system rather than food items like pizza or ice cream is a healthier approach. This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching about nutrition and the importance of not using food as a reward. Choices A, B, and C do not demonstrate a clear understanding of the teaching as they focus on concerns about overeating, skipping meals, and limiting fast-food consumption but do not address the concept of avoiding food rewards for achievements.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected tuberculosis. Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Weight loss
• C. Cough with bloody sputum
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cough with bloody sputum is a hallmark symptom of tuberculosis and is highly concerning as it indicates active disease. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) is associated with tuberculosis infection in the lungs. While night sweats and weight loss are common symptoms of tuberculosis, they are less specific than coughing with bloody sputum. Fatigue is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in various conditions and is not specific to tuberculosis.

4. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

5. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

Similar Questions