Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client who, while sitting in a chair, starts to experience a seizure, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Lower the client to the floor and place a pad under the client's head.
• B. Hold the client's head still to prevent injury.
• C. Restrain the client to prevent movement.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to lower the client to the floor to prevent injury and ensure their safety. Placing a pad under the client's head helps protect the head from injury. Choice B, holding the client's head still, is incorrect as it can lead to harm; it's essential to allow movement during a seizure to prevent neck injury. Choice C, restraining the client, is dangerous and can cause harm by restricting movement. Choice D, placing the client in a supine position, is also not recommended during a seizure as it does not provide adequate protection for the client.

2. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

• A. Knee picture
• B. Ankle picture
• C. Elbow picture
• D. Wrist picture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

4. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
• B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
• C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
• D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.

5. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?

• A. I should obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial.
• B. MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin, so another antimicrobial will be prescribed.
• C. I will protect others from exposure when I transport the client outside the room.
• D. To decrease resistance, antimicrobial therapy is discontinued when the client is no longer febrile.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.

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