an occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical resulting in a chemical burn which of the following
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. An occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical, resulting in a chemical burn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for an employee exposed to an unknown dry chemical is to brush off the chemical from the skin and clothing. This helps prevent further skin contact before irrigation can be done. Irrigating the affected area with running water is crucial after brushing off the chemical to minimize the exposure. Washing the affected area with antibacterial soap is not appropriate for chemical burns, as soap can react with certain chemicals and worsen the situation. Leaving the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive may allow the chemical to continue to harm the skin and should be avoided.

2. What is the most important action for preventing infection in a client with a central venous catheter?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. This action helps minimize the introduction of pathogens into the catheter site, reducing the risk of contamination and subsequent infection. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important, does not directly address the prevention of infection at the insertion site. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily helps prevent occlusion but does not primarily focus on infection prevention. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is essential for preventing air embolism but does not directly relate to infection control.

3. A client is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client who will have emergency surgery for appendicitis. Which of the following statements indicates a lack of readiness to learn by the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because severe pain can hinder the client's ability to participate effectively in learning. Pain can be distracting and may prevent the client from focusing on acquiring new information or skills. Choice B is incorrect because asking for a demonstration shows an interest in learning and readiness to understand the exercises. Choice C is incorrect as inquiring about potential complications indicates the client's engagement in understanding the procedure and its outcomes, demonstrating readiness to learn. Choice D is incorrect as agreeing to the procedure does not necessarily reflect a lack of readiness to learn. The client may still be open to receiving information about postoperative care, indicating a level of readiness to learn despite agreeing to the surgery.

4. Which behavior indicates the nurse is using a team approach when caring for a patient who is experiencing alterations in mobility?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consulting physical therapy for strengthening exercises in the extremities demonstrates a team approach in caring for a patient with mobility issues. Involving other healthcare professionals like physical therapists ensures a comprehensive and specialized approach to address the patient's mobility needs. This collaborative approach benefits the patient by providing specialized interventions. Choices A, B, and D do not exemplify a collaborative team approach. Delegating assessment tasks to nursing assistive personnel (Choice A) may not address the mobility issue directly. Becoming solely responsible for modifying activities of daily living (Choice B) limits the scope of interventions. Involving respiratory therapy for anxiety-related breathing issues (Choice D) addresses a different aspect of care and does not directly target mobility concerns.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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