Nursing Elites

1. When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?

• A. In the morning upon rising.
• B. Immediately after the client eats breakfast.
• C. Before the client goes to bed.
• D. After the client has had a drink of water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.

2. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?

• A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
• B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
• C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
• D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.

3. When evaluating a client's use of a cane, which action should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

• A. The client's stronger side holds the cane
• B. The top of the cane is parallel to the client's waist
• C. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of their body
• D. The client moves the cane 46 cm (18 in) forward

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to use a cane is to hold it on the stronger side of the body. This helps to provide support and maintain alignment. Option A is incorrect because the cane should be held on the stronger side, not the weaker side. Option B is incorrect as the top of the cane should be at the level of the greater trochanter, not the waist. Option D is incorrect because the client should move the weaker limb forward with the cane for stability.

4. A client is being taught how to self-administer daily low-dose heparin injections. Which of the following factors is most likely to increase the client’s motivation to learn?

• A. The client’s belief that his needs will be met through education
• B. The nurse’s empathy regarding the client's self-injection
• C. The client seeking family approval by agreeing to a teaching plan
• D. The nurse explaining the need for education to the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's belief that his needs will be met through education is the most likely factor to increase motivation to learn. When individuals perceive that their educational efforts will directly benefit them, they are more motivated to engage in the learning process. Empathy from the nurse, seeking family approval, or the nurse explaining the need for education may not be as directly tied to the client's personal benefit and may not necessarily increase motivation to learn.

5. While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. Albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• C. WBC count of 6,000/mm³
• D. Blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.

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