Nursing Elites

1. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

2. When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a:

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Heart murmur
• C. S3 heart sound
• D. S4 heart sound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is characterized by a scratching sound that occurs during both systole and diastole. It becomes more distinct when the client is sitting up and leaning forward. This indicates an inflammation of the pericardial sac rubbing against the layers of the heart. Heart murmurs (choice B) are abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent blood flow, not by friction like in a pericardial rub. S3 and S4 heart sounds (choices C and D) are additional heart sounds related to abnormal ventricular filling, not to pericardial friction rubs.

3. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

4. A healthcare professional is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. Which of the following should the healthcare professional plan to document on the client's intake and output record as 120 mL of fluid?

• A. 8 oz of ice chips
• B. 8 oz of ice chips
• C. 1 cup of broth
• D. 1 cup of broth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A, '8 oz of ice chips,' is the correct answer. 8 oz is equivalent to approximately 240 mL, and since 1 oz is roughly equal to 30 mL, 8 oz would be approximately 240 mL. Since the question specifies 120 mL of fluid, this option does not match. Choices C and D, '1 cup of broth,' do not equate to 120 mL. A standard cup is approximately 240 mL, which is double the amount mentioned in the question. Therefore, choice A is the most accurate representation of 120 mL of fluid intake.

5. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Protective environment
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Contact precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. When a client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, contact precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection through direct contact. Protective environment precautions are used for immunocompromised clients, airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, and droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets. In this case, the focus is on preventing direct contact transmission, making contact precautions the most appropriate choice. Protective environment, airborne, and droplet precautions are not indicated in this scenario because the primary concern is the direct contact transmission of pathogens through the wound drainage.

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