a client with guillain barre syndrome is in a non responsive state yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent what should the nurse docum
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

2. A nurse enters a client's room and finds her on the floor. The client's roommate reports that the client fell out of bed. Which of the following statements should the nurse document?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The documentation should be clear and precise, providing details about the context of the fall. Choice A is vague and does not specify the cause of the client being on the floor. Choice C is less specific and does not directly state that the client fell from the bed. Choice D is wordy and less direct compared to option B, which clearly states that the client fell out of bed and was found on the floor.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. The client reports flank pain, and the nurse notes reddish-brown urine in the client's urinary catheter bag. The nurse recognizes these manifestations as which of the following types of transfusion reactions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic. Hemolytic reactions can lead to flank pain and hemoglobinuria, as the body breaks down the transfused red blood cells. In hemolytic reactions, the immune system attacks and destroys the transfused red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream and urine. This results in reddish-brown urine, indicating hemoglobinuria. Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, or rash. Febrile reactions are characterized by fever, chills, and rigors. TRALI is a rare but serious transfusion reaction that manifests as acute respiratory distress following a transfusion, not flank pain and hemoglobinuria.

5. During a complete bed bath for a client, after removing the gown and placing a bath blanket over the body, which of the following areas should the nurse wash first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When performing a complete bed bath, it is essential to wash the face first. Washing the face initially helps to maintain the client's privacy and comfort. Additionally, starting with the face prevents re-contamination of already cleaned areas. Washing the feet first (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to potential contamination of the upper body parts. Starting with the chest (Choice C) or arms (Choice D) is not recommended due to the risk of water dripping onto the client's face, causing discomfort and compromising privacy.

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