following change of shift report on an orthopedic unit which client should the nurse see first

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most concerning?

A. Pain radiating to the back
B. Blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg
C. Elevated serum amylase
D. Absent bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, a low blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg is the most concerning finding as it may indicate hypovolemia or shock, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Pain radiating to the back is a common symptom of pancreatitis but is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension. Elevated serum amylase levels and absent bowel sounds are typical findings in acute pancreatitis and may indicate pancreatic inflammation and gastrointestinal motility issues, respectively, but they are not as acutely concerning as hypotension.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

A. 83 gtt/min
B. 125 gtt/min
C. 100 gtt/min
D. 75 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The healthcare professional should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

A. Erythema on pressure points
B. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+
C. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day
D. A bowel movement every other day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema on pressure points indicates potential skin breakdown due to prolonged immobility. It requires immediate intervention to prevent pressure ulcers. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+ is a normal finding, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day is within the normal range and promotes hydration. A bowel movement every other day is a reasonable frequency for some individuals and does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.