Nursing Elites

1. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
• B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
• C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
• D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to inject heparin subcutaneously for a client who is postoperative. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 25-gauge needle.
• B. Select a site on the client’s abdomen.
• C. Use the Z-track technique to displace the skin on the injection site.
• D. Observe for bleb formation to confirm proper placement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For subcutaneous injections like heparin, a 25-27 gauge needle is recommended, making choice A incorrect. The abdomen is a commonly used site for heparin injection due to its consistent absorption and convenience, making choice B the correct answer. The Z-track technique is not necessary for subcutaneous injections, making choice C unnecessary. Observing for bleb formation is not a standard practice for confirming proper placement of subcutaneous heparin, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct action is to select a site on the client's abdomen for the injection.

3. The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed.

• A. Administer nasal oxygen at a rate of 5 L/min
• B. Help the client to lie back down in the bed
• C. Quickly pivot the client to the chair and elevate the legs
• D. Check the client’s blood pressure and pulse deficit

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Checking the client’s blood pressure and pulse deficit is essential before mobilizing a client out of bed, especially after surgery. This assessment helps ensure the client's stability and readiness for mobilization. Administering oxygen or pivoting the client without prior assessment could pose risks if the client is not medically stable. Helping the client lie back down without proper evaluation may delay necessary interventions if the client is indeed ready for mobilization.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

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