HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse manager hears a healthcare provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the healthcare provider's complaints. The nurse manager's next action should be to
- A. Approach the healthcare provider and staff nurse for a private meeting to address the situation.
- B. Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference.
- C. Notify other administrative personnel of a breach of professional conduct.
- D. Request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager in this situation is to request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse. By doing so, the nurse manager can facilitate a more appropriate and professional discussion of the issues at hand in a private setting. Option A, which involves addressing the behavior quietly, may not effectively resolve the issue as it needs to be openly discussed. Option B is not advisable as the nurse manager should intervene to address the situation and provide support. Option C, notifying other administrative personnel, may escalate the situation unnecessarily before attempting to resolve it directly with the involved parties.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
3. What intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention?
- A. Apply a condom catheter.
- B. Apply a skin protectant.
- C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- D. Assess for bladder distention.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention is to assess for bladder distention. This assessment is crucial as it helps identify the underlying cause of urinary retention, such as bladder distention or obstruction. By assessing the bladder, the LPN/LVN can determine the appropriate interventions needed, such as catheterization, medication administration, or further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Applying a condom catheter (Choice A) is more suitable for urinary incontinence, not retention. Applying a skin protectant (Choice B) is typically done to prevent skin breakdown in incontinent clients. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) may be beneficial for some urinary issues but is not the priority intervention for urinary retention.
4. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?
- A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
- B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
- C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
- D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.
5. The caregiver is teaching parents about the diet for a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include
- A. Formula or breast milk
- B. Broth and tea
- C. Rice cereal and apple juice
- D. Gelatin and ginger ale
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.
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