Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. During a physical assessment, a nurse is assessing 4 adult clients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Ensure the bladder of the BP cuff surrounds 80% of their arm.
• B. Use the BP cuff on the forearm if the upper arm is not accessible.
• C. Apply the BP cuff loosely around the arm.
• D. Use a pediatric cuff for adults with small arms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the bladder of the BP cuff surrounds 80% of the arm. This technique is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Choice B is incorrect because using the BP cuff on the forearm may lead to inaccurate readings. Choice C is incorrect as applying the BP cuff loosely can also result in inaccurate measurements. Choice D is incorrect because using a pediatric cuff for adults with small arms would not provide accurate blood pressure readings.

3. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

4. A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, what should the nurse do?

• A. Lock the wheels on the bed and gurney
• B. Adjust the bed height
• C. Use a slide sheet
• D. Ask for assistance from another nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when transferring a postoperative client from the gurney to the bed is to lock the wheels on both the bed and the gurney. Locking the wheels ensures stability and prevents accidents during the transfer. Adjusting the bed height may be necessary for comfort but is not the primary concern during the transfer process. Using a slide sheet may be helpful in repositioning the client once on the bed but is not essential for the initial transfer. Asking for assistance from another nurse is always a good practice, but the immediate action to ensure safety during the transfer is to lock the wheels.

5. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

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