Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. A client reports constipation, and a nurse is providing dietary teaching. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Macaroni and cheese
• B. One medium apple with skin
• C. One cup of plain yogurt
• D. Roast chicken and white rice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: One medium apple with skin. Foods high in fiber, like apples with skin, are recommended to relieve constipation due to their fiber content, which aids in bowel regularity. Macaroni and cheese, yogurt, and roast chicken with white rice do not provide as much fiber and are less effective in alleviating constipation. While yogurt can sometimes contain probiotics that support gut health, it is not as effective in treating constipation as high-fiber foods like apples.

3. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is unable to clear secretions by coughing. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Provide humidified oxygen via tracheostomy collar.
• C. Suction the tracheostomy tube as needed.
• D. Change the tracheostomy dressing daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy tube as needed is the most appropriate action in this scenario. When a client with a tracheostomy is unable to clear secretions by coughing, suctioning helps remove the excess secretions from the airway, ensuring proper breathing. Encouraging deep breaths (Choice A) may not effectively address the immediate need to clear secretions. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the issue of clearing secretions. Changing the tracheostomy dressing daily (Choice D) is important for maintaining cleanliness but is not the priority when the client is unable to clear secretions.

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