a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin lanoxin which finding should the lpnlvn report to the healthcare provider immediately
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. A client is receiving morphine via PCA infusion device after abdominal surgery. Which of the following statements indicates that the client knows how to use the device?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates that the client understands the importance of communicating with the nurse if the pain persists while using the PCA device. This is crucial as it ensures proper pain management and monitoring. Choices A and B are incorrect because delaying the use of the device until necessary or being cautious about pushing the button too much do not necessarily reflect understanding of using the PCA device effectively. Choice D is incorrect as having someone else, like an adult child, push the dose button goes against the principle of the client self-administering the medication through the PCA device.

3. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client about self-administering heparin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is typically administered in the abdomen for self-injection to avoid muscle tissue and for better absorption. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen provides a larger area for injection and is usually recommended for heparin administration. Administering heparin in the thigh, upper arm, or buttock may not be as effective or safe as the abdomen due to variations in absorption rates and potential risks associated with muscle injection.

5. Which nursing action prevents injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing action to prevent injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops is to hold the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac. This technique helps to prevent direct contact between the container and the eye, reducing the risk of injury. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration (Choice B) is not a standard practice and may not necessarily prevent injury. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice C) is not directly related to preventing eye injury during eye drop administration. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye (Choice D) is not recommended as it can potentially cause injury or discomfort to the client.

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