Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 0.5 tablet
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.

3. When conducting an admission assessment, the LPN should ask the client about the use of complementary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?

• A. Complementary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment.
• B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects.
• C. Many complementary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices.
• D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complementary healing practices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When considering the use of complementary healing practices, it is important to acknowledge that many of these practices can be safely integrated with conventional treatments to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because complementary healing practices can complement traditional medical approaches rather than interfere with their efficacy. Choice B is incorrect as interactions between conventional medications and folk remedies may vary, but not all interactions lead to adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as conventional medical practices and complementary healing practices can coexist and each offer benefits in healthcare.

4. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

5. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?

• A. Identify the client using two identifiers
• B. Confirm the client's fasting status
• C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
• D. Explain the procedure to the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.

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