a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin lanoxin which finding should the lpnlvn report to the healthcare provider immediately
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.

3. A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When providing background information in a shift report using the SBAR communication tool, the nurse should include details related to medication administration and orders. This helps ensure continuity of care and accurate handover of responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D do not typically fall under background information for shift reports. A blood pressure reading, pain rating, and code status are more relevant to the patient's current condition and status, rather than background information about medications or orders.

4. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment as she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct course of action for the nurse is to determine which staff members have already been fitted for particulate filter masks before changing assignments. This ensures safety and compliance with infection control protocols. Option A is incorrect as wearing a standard face mask before being fitted for a filter mask does not address compliance with droplet precautions. Option B is incorrect because the priority is to ensure all staff members have appropriate equipment before providing care. Option C is incorrect as a standard mask may not offer sufficient protection when dealing with clients under droplet precautions.

5. Under the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act, what are nurse managers required to do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals.' The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates nurse managers to offer reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals to ensure equal opportunities in the workplace. Choice A is incorrect because although maintaining a hazard-free environment is essential, the focus of the ADA is on accommodations for disabled individuals. Choice C is incorrect as it overly generalizes the accommodations without specifying the need for them to be 'reasonable.' Choice D is incorrect because the ADA does not specify a requirement to consider both mental and physical disabilities; instead, it emphasizes providing reasonable accommodations regardless of the disability type.

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