a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin lanoxin which finding should the lpnlvn report to the healthcare provider immediately
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. A client is postoperative following knee arthroplasty and requires the use of a thigh-length sequential compression device. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when applying a thigh-length sequential compression device to a postoperative client is to ensure that two fingers can fit under the sleeves. This action helps prevent the device from being too tight, which could impede circulation. Choice B is incorrect because the device should not be too tight, as it could lead to circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as the client should be in a comfortable position, not necessarily supine. Choice D is incorrect as sequential compression devices are typically used continuously to prevent blood clots.

3. When teaching a client and their family how to care for the client’s tracheostomy at home, which of the following should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. This practice helps protect the stoma from foreign particles and temperature changes, reducing the risk of infection. Maintaining a sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not specific to outdoor care. Removing the outer cannula for routine cleaning (choice C) is not recommended as it may cause trauma or dislodgment of the tracheostomy tube. Cleaning around the stoma with povidone-iodine (choice D) is not advisable as it can be irritating to the skin and may impair the healing process.

4. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

5. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.

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