Nursing Elites

1. A guardian reports that a 4-year-old child is waking up with nightmares. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?

• A. Offer the child a large snack before bedtime.
• B. Allow the child to watch an extra 30 minutes of TV in the evening.
• C. Have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day.
• D. Increase physical activity before bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day. Consistent bedtime routines can help reduce nightmares by providing the child with a sense of security and stability. Offering a large snack before bedtime or allowing extra TV time may disrupt sleep patterns and lead to nightmares. Increasing physical activity before bedtime could have the opposite effect and make it harder for the child to fall asleep.

2. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

• A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
• B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
• C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
• D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

3. Before starting an intensive exercise program, what instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to the client?

• A. Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program.
• B. Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you want to eat more.
• C. Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class.
• D. Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting an intensive exercise program, it is crucial for the client to have a complete physical examination. This examination ensures that the client is physically fit to engage in such activities and helps in identifying any underlying health issues that could be exacerbated by the exercise regimen. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on stress levels related to eating habits rather than the importance of a physical examination for safety. Choice C is incorrect as exercise and stress management classes can complement each other rather than being mutually exclusive. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring weight loss, while important, is not as critical as ensuring the client's physical readiness for the exercise program.

4. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:

• A. Purulent
• B. Serous
• C. Sanguineous
• D. Serosanguineous

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

5. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

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