Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
• B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
• C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
• D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

2. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
• B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
• C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
• D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.

3. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

• A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
• B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
• C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
• D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

4. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

5. A healthcare provider has inserted an indwelling catheter for a male patient. Where should the healthcare provider tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client's urethra at the penoscrotal junction?

• A. Lower abdomen
• B. Upper thigh
• C. Penoscrotal junction
• D. Mid-abdomen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is the correct placement to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction. Securing the catheter at the lower abdomen helps in reducing discomfort and minimizes the risk of trauma to the urethra. Placing the catheter on the upper thigh or penoscrotal junction can lead to tension on the catheter and potential discomfort for the patient. Taping the catheter to the mid-abdomen is not recommended as it does not provide the necessary support to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction.

Similar Questions