HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare provider to use?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Abdomen
- D. Dorsogluteal site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous heparin injections. The abdomen has a layer of subcutaneous fat and a good blood supply, making it an ideal site for subcutaneous injections. Using the deltoid muscle for heparin injections is not appropriate as it is typically used for intramuscular injections. The ventrogluteal site is more suitable for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve.
2. A charge nurse is talking with a newly licensed nurse and is reviewing nursing interventions that do not require a provider’s prescription. Which of the following interventions should the charge nurse include?
- A. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate as needed for pain
- B. Inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube to relieve gastric distention
- C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation
- D. Performing a daily bath after the evening meal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation is an intervention that does not require a provider's prescription. This falls within the nurse's scope of practice and can be implemented to promote relaxation and reduce stress for the client. Choices A and B involve tasks that require a provider's prescription and specialized training. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate and inserting an NG tube should only be done by authorized healthcare providers. Choice D, performing a daily bath, while within the nurse's scope, does not specifically address interventions that do not require a provider's prescription.
3. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?
- A. Fat
- B. Fluid
- C. Flatus
- D. Hernias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment for a client who reports abdominal pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Perform deep palpation at the end of the admission assessment
- B. Auscultate the client’s abdomen before palpation
- C. Begin palpation of the abdomen at the site of pain
- D. Assess the client’s bowel sounds using the bell of the stethoscope
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating the abdomen before palpation is the correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario. This approach helps to assess bowel sounds accurately and prevents the alteration of bowel sounds that can occur due to palpation. By auscultating first, the nurse can gather important information about bowel function before proceeding with the palpation. Choice A is incorrect because deep palpation should be avoided initially, especially in a client reporting abdominal pain, as it may cause discomfort or potential harm. Choice C is incorrect as palpation should typically start away from the site of pain to prevent exacerbating discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because assessing bowel sounds with the bell of the stethoscope is not the initial step recommended when a client reports abdominal pain; auscultation should be performed with the diaphragm of the stethoscope first.
5. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
- B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
- C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.
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