Nursing Elites

1. After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, what should the LPN/LVN do next?

• A. Determine the etiology of the problem.
• B. Prioritize nursing care interventions.
• C. Plan appropriate interventions.
• D. Collaborate with the client to set goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After identifying a problem in a client, the next step for the LPN/LVN is to determine the etiology or cause of the problem. Understanding the root cause of the issue is essential as it guides the development of appropriate interventions. Option B, prioritizing nursing care interventions, is premature without knowing the cause of the problem. Option C, planning appropriate interventions, also relies on knowing the etiology first to ensure the interventions directly address the underlying issue. Collaborating with the client to set goals, as mentioned in option D, is important but typically comes after understanding the cause of the problem to ensure the goals are relevant and effective.

2. A community health nurse is caring for a group of families. The nurse should identify which of the following families is experiencing a maturational loss?

• A. A family whose only child recently died due to cancer.
• B. A family whose head of household lost her job.
• C. A family whose house was destroyed in a fire.
• D. A family whose oldest child is moving away for college.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because maturational loss is related to developmental changes, such as children leaving for college. This type of loss is tied to the normal life transitions of individuals and can lead to feelings of grief and adjustment. Choices A, B, and C represent different types of losses. Choice A involves a traumatic loss of a child due to illness, choice B involves a financial loss impacting the head of household's job, and choice C involves a material loss due to a fire incident. While these losses are significant, they do not specifically relate to maturational loss, which is associated with expected life stage transitions.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum amylase of 200 U/L
• B. Serum lipase of 250 U/L
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Serum calcium of 7.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, hypocalcemia (low serum calcium) is a critical finding that is associated with a poor prognosis and requires immediate attention. Serum amylase and lipase are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation, but they are not indicators of severity. Blood glucose levels may be elevated due to stress or underlying conditions but are not directly related to the severity of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, the most concerning value in this scenario is the low serum calcium level, which can have significant implications for the client's prognosis.

4. When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Offer the client tart or sour foods.
• B. Ensure the client is sitting upright while eating.
• C. Provide soft and easily swallowable foods.
• D. Give the client thickened liquids to help with swallowing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.

5. A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission, the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively, the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Administer the PRN dose of Albuterol
• C. Apply oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
• D. Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with moderate persistent asthma experiencing a drop in peak flow and chest tightness post-operatively, the first action the nurse should take is to administer the PRN dose of Albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice A) can be done after initiating immediate treatment with Albuterol. Applying oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the bronchospasm with Albuterol is the priority. Repeating the peak flow reading (choice D) can be considered after administering Albuterol to assess the response to treatment.

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