HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
2. A client expresses that, based on religious values and mandates, a blood transfusion is not an acceptable treatment option. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “I believe in this case you should make an exception and accept the blood transfusion.”
- B. “I know your family would approve of your decision to have a blood transfusion.”
- C. “Why does your religion mandate that you cannot receive any blood transfusions?”
- D. “Let’s discuss the necessity for a blood transfusion with your religious and spiritual leaders and come to a reasonable solution.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to involve the client's religious and spiritual leaders in the discussion to find a solution that respects both the client's values and medical needs. Option A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's beliefs. Option B assumes the family's opinion over the client's. Option C is inappropriate as it questions the client's religious beliefs rather than addressing the concern respectfully.
3. What action should a healthcare professional planning to insert an IV for an older adult client take?
- A. Place the client’s arm in a dependent position.
- B. Place the client’s arm in a flexed position.
- C. Elevate the client’s arm to the level of the heart.
- D. Use a tourniquet above the insertion site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a healthcare professional planning to insert an IV for an older adult client is to place the client’s arm in a dependent position. This positioning helps with vein prominence and facilitates easier IV insertion by enhancing blood flow and distending the veins. Placing the arm in a flexed position or elevating it to the level of the heart can impede vein visualization and make insertion more challenging. Using a tourniquet above the insertion site is a step in the IV insertion process but is not the initial action to take when preparing for the procedure.
4. The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?
- A. Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen
- B. Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream
- C. Clean the meatus, then urinate into container
- D. Void continuously and catch some of the urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for obtaining a clean catch urine specimen involves first cleaning the meatus to prevent contamination, then initiating voiding to catch the midstream urine. This method ensures that the sample is as uncontaminated as possible, making choice B the correct sequence. Option A is incorrect as cleaning the meatus should be done before voiding. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve catching a midstream urine sample. Option D is incorrect as it suggests catching urine throughout the entire voiding process, which may lead to contamination.
5. A nurse overhears a colleague informing a client that he will administer her medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills. The nurse should recognize that the colleague is committing which of the following torts?
- A. Defamation - harming someone's reputation through false statements.
- B. Malpractice - professional negligence or misconduct.
- C. Assault - threatening to cause harm to someone.
- D. Battery - intentional harmful or offensive physical contact.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the colleague's action of informing the client that he will administer medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills constitutes assault. Assault is the act of threatening harm that causes fear of imminent harm. It does not involve physical contact but rather the apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive act. Defamation, choice A, is incorrect as it involves harming someone's reputation through false statements. Malpractice, choice B, is also incorrect as it refers to professional negligence or misconduct in performing duties. Battery, choice D, is not the correct answer as it involves intentional harmful or offensive physical contact with the person.
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