HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
4. A client who has been experiencing frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Wrap blankets around all four sides of the bed.
- B. Place the client in a padded room.
- C. Maintain the bed in the lowest position.
- D. Ensure the client has a soft mattress.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining the bed in the lowest position is crucial in reducing the risk of injury during tonic-clonic seizures. This action helps prevent falls and minimizes potential harm to the client. Wrapping blankets around all four sides of the bed (Choice A) may restrict movement during a seizure and increase the risk of injury. Placing the client in a padded room (Choice B) is not a practical approach in a healthcare setting and may not be feasible. Ensuring the client has a soft mattress (Choice D) alone does not address the safety concerns during seizures, unlike keeping the bed in the lowest position.
5. A healthcare professional is measuring vital signs for a client and notices an irregularity in the pulse. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
- B. Recheck the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes.
- C. Measure the client’s blood pressure.
- D. Record the irregularity and continue with other vital signs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When an irregular pulse is detected, it is essential to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute to accurately determine the rhythm. This ensures a comprehensive assessment and helps in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities. Rechecking the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes (Choice B) may not provide an immediate understanding of the irregularity. Measuring the client's blood pressure (Choice C) is important but not directly related to addressing the irregular pulse. Recording the irregularity and continuing with other vital signs (Choice D) may overlook a potentially serious cardiac issue that requires immediate attention.
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