Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

2. A client in the terminal stage of cancer is crying. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Sit and hold the client's hand
• B. Encourage the client to talk about their feelings
• C. Leave the client alone to cry
• D. Ignore the client's crying

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In situations where a client is in the terminal stage of cancer and crying, it is essential for the nurse to provide comfort and support. Sitting with the client and holding their hand can offer a sense of presence and emotional support, showing empathy and understanding. Encouraging the client to talk about their feelings (choice B) is also important, but initially, non-verbal support through physical presence can be comforting. Leaving the client alone to cry (choice C) can make the client feel abandoned and unsupported during a vulnerable moment. Ignoring the client's crying (choice D) is not appropriate and lacks compassion and empathy, which are crucial in end-of-life care.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. I will need to change the colostomy bag every day.
• B. I should avoid foods that can cause gas, such as beans and carbonated drinks.
• C. I need to empty the colostomy bag when it is one-third to one-half full.
• D. I will need to take care of the skin around the stoma to prevent irritation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Changing the colostomy bag every day is not necessary; it should be changed as needed, usually every 3-7 days. This statement indicates a need for additional teaching as frequent changes can irritate the skin and are not typically required. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding colostomy care. Avoiding gas-producing foods, emptying the bag when it is one-third to one-half full, and taking care of the skin around the stoma are all essential aspects of colostomy care to prevent complications and maintain skin integrity.

4. A client with difficulty self-feeding due to rheumatoid arthritis should be referred to which member of the interprofessional care team to use adaptive devices?

• A. Social worker
• B. Certified nursing assistant
• C. Registered dietitian
• D. Occupational therapist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Occupational therapist. Occupational therapists specialize in assisting clients with adaptive devices to enhance their ability to perform daily activities like self-feeding. They evaluate client needs and provide interventions to promote independence in activities of daily living. Choice A, Social worker, focuses on psychosocial support and community resources, not directly addressing the physical aspect of self-feeding difficulty. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is involved in direct patient care but lacks specialized training in adaptive devices. Choice C, Registered dietitian, primarily focuses on nutrition-related issues and may not have the expertise in adaptive devices and functional rehabilitation necessary for this client's self-feeding challenges.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

Similar Questions