Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

2. A client with chronic renal failure selects scrambled eggs for breakfast. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein.
• B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
• C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice to promote absorption.
• D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein, as scrambled eggs provide a good protein source for clients with chronic renal failure. Protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health in these clients. Reminding the client to avoid protein is incorrect as it may lead to protein-energy malnutrition, which is a common concern in chronic renal failure. Suggesting orange juice for absorption is not relevant to the situation, as protein absorption is not a primary concern in this context. Encouraging the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure is important for overall education but is not the immediate action needed in response to the client's breakfast choice.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing measures to prevent back injuries with assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. When lifting an object, spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
• B. Always lift objects with your back straight and not your legs.
• C. Avoid using any assistive devices.
• D. Bend at the waist to reach objects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent back injuries while lifting is to spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support. This helps in maintaining stability and reduces the risk of back injury. Choice B is incorrect as lifting objects with your back straight and using your legs is the recommended technique. Choice C is incorrect because assistive devices can actually help prevent back injuries by providing support. Choice D is incorrect as bending at the waist to reach objects can strain the back muscles and increase the risk of injury.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precautions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB), airborne precautions should be implemented. Tuberculosis is spread through the air via droplet nuclei, requiring the use of airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for diseases spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread through direct contact, such as MRSA. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the transmission of infections from blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

5. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
• B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
• C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
• D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

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