Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

2. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) preparing to obtain blood pressure with a regular size cuff for a client who is obese. Which of the following explanations should the nurse give the AP?

• A. Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.
• B. Using a cuff that is too large will result in an inaccurately low reading.
• C. The regular size cuff is appropriate for all clients.
• D. You should use a cuff of any size as long as it fits.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.' When obtaining blood pressure for an obese client, it is crucial to use a larger cuff to ensure an accurate reading. Choice B is incorrect because using a cuff that is too large for an obese client would actually result in an inaccurately low reading. Choice C is incorrect as a regular size cuff is not appropriate for obese clients due to their larger arm circumference. Choice D is incorrect because using a cuff of any size as long as it fits is not suitable for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings on an obese client.

3. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process.
• B. After the client stabilizes.
• C. Only after the client requests it.
• D. At the time of discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my oxygen tank upright at all times.
• B. I will not use petroleum jelly to keep my nose from drying out.
• C. I will not smoke or allow others to smoke around me.
• D. I will call my doctor if I have difficulty breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy due to the risk of fire. The client should avoid using petroleum-based products around oxygen equipment. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate statements for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy. Keeping the oxygen tank upright ensures proper oxygen flow, avoiding smoking or exposure to smoke helps prevent respiratory aggravation, and knowing to seek medical help promptly for breathing difficulties is essential for managing COPD effectively.

5. When preparing an injection for opioid medication, a nurse draws 1mL from a 2mL vial. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask another nurse to observe medication wastage
• B. Document the amount of medication drawn on the MAR
• C. Dispose of the remaining medication in a sharps container
• D. Administer the entire vial of medication to avoid wastage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When drawing medication from a vial, especially for controlled substances like opioids, any wastage must be witnessed by another healthcare professional to ensure accuracy, prevent diversion, and maintain safety standards. This process is crucial for proper documentation and accountability. Recording the amount drawn on the Medication Administration Record (MAR) is important for tracking administered doses and preventing errors. Disposing of the remaining medication in a sharps container is not recommended as it does not address proper wastage documentation. Administering the entire vial of medication just to avoid wastage is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or overdose in the patient.

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