HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A 15-year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which statement from the adolescent indicates the need for additional teaching?
- A. I will only have to wear this for 6 months.
- B. I should inspect my skin daily.
- C. The brace will be worn day and night.
- D. I can take it off when I shower.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I will only have to wear this for 6 months' indicates a need for additional teaching because the Milwaukee Brace is typically worn for 12-18 months, not just 6 months. Choice B is correct as inspecting the skin daily is important to prevent skin breakdown. Choice C is correct as the brace is usually worn day and night for effectiveness. Choice D is correct as the brace can be removed when showering to maintain hygiene.
2. The patient is reporting an inability to clear nasal passages. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage.
- B. Instruct the patient to blow their nose forcefully to clear the passage.
- C. Place a dry washcloth under the nose to absorb secretions.
- D. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient reports an inability to clear nasal passages, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage. Suctioning helps remove excess mucus or secretions without causing harm to the nasal tissues. Instructing the patient to blow their nose forcefully (Choice B) may exacerbate the issue and cause discomfort or injury. Placing a dry washcloth under the nose (Choice C) is not an effective intervention for clearing nasal passages. Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be invasive and may cause injury or discomfort to the patient.
3. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Saturated abdominal dressing
- C. Pain level of 8/10
- D. Temperature of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.
4. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
- B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
- C. Clean the perineal area with an antiseptic solution daily.
- D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. This step helps prevent obstruction in the tubing, maintaining proper urine flow and reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated, as routine changes can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Cleaning the perineal area with an antiseptic solution is essential for general hygiene but does not directly prevent catheter-related infections. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a standard practice and can introduce microorganisms into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.
5. A client is contemplating retirement and expresses uncertainty about wanting to retire. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you.
- B. Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?
- C. What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?
- D. Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choosing option A, 'Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you,' is the most appropriate response in this scenario. By discussing how retirement might affect the client, the nurse can address the client's concerns and emotions about the impending change. Option B, 'Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?' is not the best response as it focuses solely on financial aspects and does not address the client's emotional readiness for retirement. Option C, 'What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?' is more open-ended and may not address the immediate concerns of the client expressing uncertainty. Option D, 'Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?' assumes the client is certain about retiring and focuses on activities rather than addressing the client's feelings of uncertainty.
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