Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge?

• A. Asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
• B. States he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
• C. Demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
• D. Has all the necessary supplies for wound care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Demonstrating the wound care procedure correctly indicates the client's readiness to independently manage wound care. This action shows practical understanding and application of the necessary skills. Choice A, asking relevant questions, is important but does not directly demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure. Choice B, stating the ability to complete the regimen, is a good intention but does not confirm practical competence. Choice D, having necessary supplies, is essential but does not ensure the client's ability to execute proper wound care.

2. A guardian reports that a 4-year-old child is waking up with nightmares. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?

• A. Offer the child a large snack before bedtime.
• B. Allow the child to watch an extra 30 minutes of TV in the evening.
• C. Have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day.
• D. Increase physical activity before bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day. Consistent bedtime routines can help reduce nightmares by providing the child with a sense of security and stability. Offering a large snack before bedtime or allowing extra TV time may disrupt sleep patterns and lead to nightmares. Increasing physical activity before bedtime could have the opposite effect and make it harder for the child to fall asleep.

3. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

4. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine in a single container on ice.
• C. Include the last voiding in the collection.
• D. Instruct the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.

5. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Impaired balance
• B. Hemiplegia
• C. Muscle sprain
• D. Lower extremity paralysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

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