Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge?

• A. Asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
• B. States he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
• C. Demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
• D. Has all the necessary supplies for wound care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Demonstrating the wound care procedure correctly indicates the client's readiness to independently manage wound care. This action shows practical understanding and application of the necessary skills. Choice A, asking relevant questions, is important but does not directly demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure. Choice B, stating the ability to complete the regimen, is a good intention but does not confirm practical competence. Choice D, having necessary supplies, is essential but does not ensure the client's ability to execute proper wound care.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to the client to help manage their condition?

• A. Increase fluid intake to thin secretions.
• B. Practice pursed-lip breathing to improve oxygenation.
• C. Avoid physical activity to prevent dyspnea.
• D. Use a peak flow meter to monitor lung function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Practicing pursed-lip breathing is an essential technique to help manage COPD as it can improve oxygenation by promoting better gas exchange. This technique helps to keep the airways open longer during exhalation, preventing air trapping and improving breathing efficiency. Increasing fluid intake can help thin secretions, which is beneficial, but it is not the primary instruction for managing COPD. Avoiding physical activity is not recommended as it can lead to deconditioning and worsen dyspnea in COPD patients. Using a peak flow meter is more commonly associated with monitoring asthma rather than COPD, so it is not the most relevant instruction for managing COPD.

3. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
• B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
• C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
• D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Administer the medication with the needle at a 30-degree angle.
• D. Administer the medication with the needle at a 15-degree angle.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered with the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the recommended angle for subcutaneous injections. Administering enoxaparin at a 45-degree angle (Choice A), 30-degree angle (Choice C), or 15-degree angle (Choice D) would not be appropriate and may lead to improper administration or absorption of the medication.

5. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

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