HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A healthcare professional is obtaining the blood pressure in a client's lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Place the bladder of the cuff over the posterior aspect of the thigh
- B. Use a smaller cuff designed for lower extremities
- C. Place the cuff around the client's ankle
- D. Ensure the cuff is positioned above the knee
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When measuring blood pressure in the lower extremity, the bladder of the cuff should be placed over the posterior aspect of the thigh. This positioning ensures an accurate measurement. Placing the cuff around the ankle (Choice C) or above the knee (Choice D) would not provide an accurate blood pressure reading in the lower extremity. Using a smaller cuff designed for lower extremities (Choice B) is not appropriate as the standard cuff size should be used with the bladder placed over the posterior aspect of the thigh.
2. A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the LPN to include during the preoperative assessment?
- A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
- B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?
- C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
- D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the preoperative assessment, it is crucial for the LPN to inquire about the client's intake of vitamin and mineral supplements. This is important because certain supplements can have effects on coagulation, wound healing, and overall surgical outcomes. Asking about daily calorie consumption (Choice A) is not as pertinent as inquiring about vitamin and mineral supplements in this context. Questioning the client about feeling overweight (Choice C) may not directly impact the surgical outcome compared to the effects of supplements. Inquiring about the post-surgery diet (Choice D) is relevant but not as critical as understanding the client's supplement intake.
3. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?
- A. Ankle-foot orthotic
- B. Continuous passive motion machine
- C. Abduction splint
- D. Sequential compression device
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.
4. The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the LPN take?
- A. Directly address the child instead of the mother.
- B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child.
- C. Request another nurse to interview the mother now.
- D. Politely ask the mother to look at you when answering.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the LPN should continue asking the mother questions about the child. The mother's behavior of looking at the floor may be a cultural practice, such as avoiding direct eye contact, which should be respected. By maintaining the conversation with the mother, the nurse acknowledges and respects her communication style, fostering trust and open dialogue. Option A is not the best choice as it may disregard the cultural context and the importance of the mother's input. Option C is unnecessary as the LPN can effectively handle the situation. Option D could be perceived as insensitive and may disrupt the rapport between the nurse and the mother.
5. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
- A. I have problems with diarrhea.
- B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
- C. I have diminished sexual function.
- D. I often feel jittery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
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