HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The nurse is assessing body alignment for a patient who is immobilized. Which patient position will the nurse use?
- A. Supine position
- B. Lateral position
- C. Lateral position with positioning supports
- D. Supine position with no pillow under the patient's head
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing body alignment for an immobilized patient, the nurse should use the lateral position. This position helps in assessing alignment and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers. The supine position (Choice A) may not provide an accurate assessment of body alignment in an immobilized patient. While a lateral position with positioning supports (Choice C) may be used for comfort, it is not specifically for assessing body alignment. Using the supine position without a pillow under the patient's head (Choice D) is not ideal for assessing body alignment in an immobilized patient as it may not accurately reflect the patient's overall alignment.
2. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?
- A. SBAR
- B. SOAP
- C. PIE
- D. DAR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.
3. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?
- A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
- B. Loose, productive cough
- C. No relief from inhaler
- D. Fever and chills
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.
4. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
5. When preparing to apply dressing to a stage 2 pressure injury, which type of dressing should the nurse use?
- A. Hydrocolloid
- B. Gauze
- C. Transparent film
- D. Alginate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrocolloid. Hydrocolloid dressings are recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as they help maintain a moist wound environment, which supports the healing process. Gauze (choice B) is not ideal for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can stick to the wound bed and disrupt the healing process. Transparent film dressings (choice C) are more suitable for superficial wounds or as a secondary dressing. Alginate dressings (choice D) are typically used for wounds with heavy exudate, which is not typically seen in stage 2 pressure injuries.
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