Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a prescription for an antibiotic for a client with cellulitis. The nurse checks the client’s medical record, discovers the client's allergy to the antibiotic, and calls the provider for a different prescription. Which of the following critical thinking attitudes did the nurse demonstrate?

• A. Fairness
• B. Responsibility
• C. Risk-taking
• D. Creativity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse demonstrated responsibility by recognizing the potential harm of administering an antibiotic the client is allergic to and taking the necessary steps to ensure the client's safety. Choice A, 'Fairness,' is not applicable in this scenario as it does not involve treating individuals equitably. Choice C, 'Risk-taking,' is incorrect as the nurse's actions aimed to minimize risks rather than taking them. Choice D, 'Creativity,' is not the best fit as the nurse's actions focused on following established protocols and ensuring patient safety rather than thinking innovatively.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position before administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP?

• A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
• B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
• C. Reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium.
• D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the LPN/LVN should provide to the UAP is to reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium for administering a soap suds enema. This position helps facilitate the administration of the enema by providing better access and comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as reverse Trendelenburg is not the appropriate position for administering a soap suds enema. Choice B is incorrect as the concentration of soap in the enema solution is not specified and might be too strong. Choice D is incorrect as raising the side rails and elevating the bed does not directly relate to the proper positioning for administering the enema.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

4. A client with a terminal illness is expected to pass away within 24 hours. The family asks the nurse about what to expect at this time. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?

• A. Regular breathing pattern
• B. Warm extremities
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased muscle tone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As death approaches, decreased muscle tone and other signs like decreased blood pressure, irregular breathing patterns, cold extremities, and decreased urine output are common. Warm extremities (choice B) would not be expected as circulation may be compromised. Increased urine output (choice C) is unlikely as organ function declines. A regular breathing pattern (choice A) is also unlikely as irregular breathing patterns are common near death.

5. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.

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