Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews an immobilized patient's laboratory results and discovers hypercalcemia. Which condition will the nurse monitor for most closely in this patient?

• A. Hypostatic pneumonia
• B. Renal stones
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Thrombus formation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal stones. Renal calculi are calcium stones that can form in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters. Immobilized patients, who have hypercalcemia, are at increased risk for developing renal stones. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of renal stones is crucial in this patient population. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although they are potential complications in immobilized patients, they are not directly associated with hypercalcemia and do not match the scenario described in the question.

2. A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client’s MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Intervention
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.

3. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.

4. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

• A. Spaghetti
• B. Watermelon
• C. Chicken
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to eat daily when taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon helps maintain adequate potassium levels. Spaghetti, chicken, and tomatoes are not as high in potassium and therefore not as beneficial in preventing hypokalemia related to furosemide use.

5. Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5.5 hours. How much heparin has the client received?

• A. 11,000 units.
• B. 13,000 units.
• C. 15,000 units.
• D. 17,000 units.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of heparin received, multiply the infusion rate (50 ml/hour) by the total infusion time (5.5 hours). This results in 275 ml of the solution infused. Since there are 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml, there are 800 units per ml. Therefore, 275 ml contains 220,000 units. However, the heparin is diluted in 500 ml, so the client has received half of this amount, which is 110,000 units. Therefore, the correct answer is 11,000 units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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