Nursing Elites

1. Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?

• A. The patient will ambulate briskly on the treadmill by the time of discharge.
• B. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge.
• C. The nurse will assist the patient to ambulate in the hall 2 times a day.
• D. The patient will ambulate by the time of discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The goal 'The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge' is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, achievable, and individualized. This goal sets a clear target for the patient's mobility progress post-surgery. Choice A is too vague and does not provide a specific target distance or method of ambulation. Choice C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the patient's progress. Choice D lacks specificity in terms of distance or assistance required, making it less measurable and individualized compared to Choice B.

2. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
• B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
• C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
• D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

3. A client with lower extremity weakness is being taught a four-point crutch gait by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Bear weight on both legs.
• B. Move the crutches and the weak leg in unison.
• C. Advance the crutches and the strong leg simultaneously.
• D. Move the crutches forward, then move one leg at a time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a four-point crutch gait involves moving the crutches forward, then moving one leg at a time. This method provides stability and support by alternating movement between the crutches and legs. Choice A is incorrect because bearing weight on both legs simultaneously is not the correct method for a four-point gait. Choice B is incorrect as moving the crutches and weak leg together does not provide the required stability. Choice C is incorrect as advancing the crutches and strong leg together does not promote the alternating movement needed for a four-point gait.

4. A client is crying while reading from a religious book and asks to be left alone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the hospital’s spiritual services.
• B. Ask what is making the client cry.
• C. Ensure no visitors or staff enter the room for a short time period.
• D. Turn on the television for a distraction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ensure no visitors or staff enter the room for a short time period. Respecting the client's wish for privacy during emotional moments is crucial for providing patient-centered care. Contacting spiritual services or asking about the reason for crying may intrude on the client's privacy and emotional space. Turning on the television for a distraction is not appropriate as it does not address the client's emotional needs or request for privacy.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What is the best initial action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice.
• C. Give the client a snack containing protein and carbohydrates.
• D. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia is to give them 4 ounces of orange juice. Orange juice quickly raises blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic client. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is not the best initial action for hypoglycemia; it is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia cases. Giving a snack containing protein and carbohydrates is not as rapid as orange juice in raising blood glucose levels during hypoglycemia. Encouraging the client to rest until symptoms resolve does not address the immediate need to raise blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic state.

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