Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
• B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
• C. Position legs flat against the bed.
• D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.

2. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?

• A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
• B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
• C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
• D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.

3. The client is receiving discharge instructions for a new antihypertensive medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will stop taking the medication if I experience dizziness.
• B. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• C. I will avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. I will rise slowly from a sitting to a standing position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stopping antihypertensive medication abruptly can lead to rebound hypertension, which can be dangerous. Clients should never discontinue their medication without consulting their healthcare provider first. Choice B is correct because monitoring blood pressure is essential when taking antihypertensive medication to ensure it stays within the target range. Choice C is correct as alcohol can potentiate the hypotensive effects of antihypertensive medications. Choice D is correct as orthostatic hypotension can occur, so rising slowly helps prevent dizziness and falls. Therefore, choice A is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

4. The healthcare provider is observing the way a patient walks. Which aspect is the healthcare provider assessing?

• A. Activity tolerance
• B. Body alignment
• C. Range of motion
• D. Gait

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing the way a patient walks, the healthcare provider is evaluating the gait, which refers to a particular manner or style of walking. Body alignment pertains to the positioning of body parts in relation to one another, range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, and activity tolerance relates to the ability to endure physical activities. In this scenario, observing the patient's walking pattern specifically focuses on gait assessment.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

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