Nursing Elites

1. A client is drawing up and mixing insulin under the observation of a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that psychomotor learning has taken place?

• A. The client is able to discuss the appropriate technique.
• B. The client is able to demonstrate the appropriate technique.
• C. The client states an understanding of the process.
• D. The client is able to write the steps on a piece of paper.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the ability to demonstrate the appropriate technique shows that the client has acquired the psychomotor skills needed for insulin preparation. Merely discussing, stating an understanding, or writing the steps does not confirm that the client can physically perform the task correctly. Being able to demonstrate indicates practical application and mastery of the skill. Choice A is incorrect because discussing the technique does not necessarily mean the client can physically perform it. Choice C is incorrect as stating an understanding does not guarantee the client's ability to perform the task. Choice D is incorrect because writing the steps does not assess the client's physical execution of the technique.

2. During a patient assessment, which principle should be a priority?

• A. Foot care is always important.
• B. Daily bathing is always important.
• C. Hygiene needs are always important.
• D. Critical thinking is always important.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a patient assessment, critical thinking is a priority because a patient's condition can change rapidly, necessitating continuous critical thinking and adaptation of nursing interventions. While foot care, daily bathing, and hygiene needs are important components of patient care, they may not always take precedence over critical thinking, which guides the nurse in making timely and appropriate decisions based on the patient's current condition and needs. Therefore, critical thinking stands out as the most crucial principle during patient assessments.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Abdomen
• D. Inner forearm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The inner forearm is the most appropriate site for administering a tuberculin skin test. This test requires an intradermal injection, which is administered just below the surface of the skin. The inner forearm provides a flat, easily accessible surface for this type of injection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the tuberculin skin test should not be administered into a muscle (deltoid muscle or vastus lateralis muscle) or into the abdomen. The test requires precise placement within the dermal layer of the skin on the inner forearm to accurately assess for a reaction.

4. A client requires gastric decompression, and a nurse is inserting an NG tube. Which action should the nurse take to verify proper placement of the tube?

• A. Assess the client for a gag reflex
• B. Measure the pH of the gastric aspirate
• C. Place the end of the NG tube in water to observe for bubbling
• D. Auscultate 2.5 cm (1 in) above the umbilicus while injecting 15 mL of sterile water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measuring the pH of the gastric aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm proper placement of an NG tube. Gastric fluid has an acidic pH, typically ranging from 1 to 5. Assessing the client for a gag reflex (choice A) is important for airway protection but does not confirm tube placement. Placing the NG tube in water to observe for bubbling (choice C) is incorrect and not a reliable method for verifying placement. Auscultating 2.5 cm above the umbilicus while injecting sterile water (choice D) is an outdated method and is not recommended for verifying NG tube placement.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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