Nursing Elites

1. At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrated the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing:

• A. With her hands held lower than her elbows
• B. With her hands held higher than her elbows
• C. With her hands in a fist position
• D. With hands placed on her chest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for surgical handwashing involves scrubbing with hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning helps prevent water from the contaminated area (the hands) from flowing towards the cleaner area (the elbows). This directional flow minimizes the risk of contaminating the scrubbed hands during the handwashing process. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - having hands lower than elbows would risk contamination of the clean area, C - using a fist position does not ensure proper coverage and thorough handwashing, and D - placing hands on the chest is not part of the proper surgical handwashing technique.

2. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

• A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
• B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
• D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

3. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.

4. A nurse is discussing the nursing process with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should the nurse identify as appropriate for the planning step of the nursing process?

• A. “I will determine the most important client problems that we should address.”
• B. “I will review the past medical history on the client’s record to gather more information.”
• C. “I will carry out the new prescriptions from the provider.”
• D. “I will ask the client if their nausea has resolved.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the nursing process, the planning step involves determining priorities and goals based on the identified problems. Choice A is correct as it reflects the nurse's role in identifying the most important client problems to address, which aligns with the planning phase. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B involves data collection, which is a part of the assessment phase, not planning. Choice C pertains to the implementation of care, which occurs after the planning phase. Choice D involves evaluation of a specific intervention, not planning.

5. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

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