Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Draw up each medication separately in the syringe.
• C. Push the syringe plunger gently if feeling resistance.
• D. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering multiple medications to a client with an enteral feeding tube is to flush the tube with 15-30 mL of sterile water before and between medications, and 30-60 mL after the last medication. This helps prevent clogging and ensures each medication is delivered effectively. Choice A is incorrect as medications should not be dissolved in water for administration through an enteral feeding tube. Choice B is incorrect because each medication should be drawn up and administered separately to prevent any potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as resistance while pushing the plunger may indicate a problem that needs to be addressed before continuing with the administration.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

3. The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client’s circulation is checked every hour.
• B. Document the reason for the restraints every 4 hours.
• C. Provide range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours.
• D. Release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.

5. A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:

• A. Solutes in the urine
• B. Bacteria in the urine
• C. pH level of the urine
• D. Glucose in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.

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