Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Protective environment
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Contact precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. Contact precautions are used when there is a risk of transmission of infections through direct or indirect contact. In this scenario, the client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, indicating a potential for infection transmission through contact. Droplet precautions (choice A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment (choice B) is used for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions (choice C) are used for infections transmitted through small droplets that remain in the air, like tuberculosis. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.

2. Penalties should be __________ .

• A. Determining the employee's awareness of the policy
• B. Describing the staff nurse's behavior that violated the policy
• C. Progressive
• D. Confrontation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penalties for policy violations should be progressive. This means that the disciplinary actions should escalate based on the severity or frequency of the violation. For minor infractions, like smoking in an unauthorized area, a progressive approach may include oral warnings, written warnings, suspension, and termination if the behavior persists. In contrast, major violations, such as theft, may warrant immediate and severe consequences like suspension or termination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the concept of progressively escalating penalties based on the violation's severity or recurrence.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?

• A. Direct patient care provider
• B. Administrator of healthcare facilities
• C. Consultant for nursing staff
• D. Policy maker in healthcare organizations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) serves as a consultant for nursing staff, providing expert advice and guidance on clinical practice. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as CNS typically focus more on education, research, and consultation rather than direct patient care. Choice B, 'Administrator of healthcare facilities,' is incorrect as this role is usually fulfilled by nurse administrators or nurse managers. Choice D, 'Policy maker in healthcare organizations,' is incorrect as policy-making roles are typically held by individuals in healthcare administration or government positions.

4. Which of the following is the correct definition of 'chain of command'?

• A. The hierarchy of authority and responsibility
• B. Relationship without authority
• C. Activity directed through linear authority
• D. The tendency for people to perform as expected

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct definition of 'chain of command' is the hierarchy of authority and responsibility. This term refers to the order in which authority and power in an organization are wielded and delegated from top management to every employee at every level. Choice B, 'Relationship without authority,' is incorrect because the chain of command specifically involves authority and responsibility. Choice C, 'Activity directed through linear authority,' is not a precise definition of the chain of command, as it does not encompass the full scope of authority and hierarchy. Choice D, 'The tendency for people to perform as expected,' is unrelated to the concept of the chain of command.

5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

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