Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Coagulation time
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

2. To use the nursing process correctly, what must the nurse do first?

• A. Obtain information about the client
• B. Develop a care plan
• C. Implement interventions
• D. Evaluate the client's outcomes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first step in the nursing process is to obtain information about the client. This step involves gathering data through assessment to understand the client's needs, health status, and preferences. Developing a care plan (Choice B) comes after the assessment phase. Implementing interventions (Choice C) and evaluating client outcomes (Choice D) occur in subsequent stages of the nursing process. Therefore, the correct initial step is to gather information about the client to form a foundation for providing individualized care.

3. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?

• A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
• B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
• C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
• D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.

4. A client has recently started using a behind-the-ear hearing aid. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the use of this assistive device?

• A. This type of hearing aid allows for fine-tuning of volume.
• B. I should ensure the hearing aid stays secure during exercise.
• C. I might hear a whistling sound when I first insert the hearing aid.
• D. I will be sure to remove my hearing aid before taking a shower.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because removing the hearing aid before taking a shower is essential to prevent water damage, as moisture can harm the device. Choice A is incorrect because behind-the-ear hearing aids do allow for fine-tuning of volume. Choice B is incorrect because exercise may cause the hearing aid to shift position, so it's important to ensure it stays secure. Choice C is incorrect because hearing a whistling sound when inserting the hearing aid may indicate improper placement or fit.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

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