Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

2. When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?

• A. In the morning upon rising.
• B. Immediately after the client eats breakfast.
• C. Before the client goes to bed.
• D. After the client has had a drink of water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.

3. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

• A. “I had my immunizations as a child, so I’m protected in that area.”
• B. “It is important to schedule routine health care visits even if I am feeling well.”
• C. “I will go to an urgent care center for my routine medical care.”
• D. “There’s no reason to seek help if I am feeling stressed as it’s just part of life.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.

5. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

• A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
• B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
• C. Decreased white blood cell count.
• D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

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