Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)

• A. “The temperature around the IV site is cooler.”
• B. “The rate of the infusion increases.”
• C. “The skin at the IV site is red.”
• D. “The IV dressing is damp.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.

2. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of weight gain, swelling in the legs, and shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

• A. Perform a physical assessment
• B. Review the client's medication list
• C. Instruct the client to elevate the legs
• D. Obtain a detailed dietary history

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a physical assessment is the most appropriate initial nursing action in this scenario. A thorough physical assessment helps evaluate the client's current condition, severity of symptoms, and identify any immediate concerns. This assessment can provide crucial information to guide further interventions and treatment. Reviewing the client's medication list (choice B) is important but may not address the immediate need for assessing the client's current status. Instructing the client to elevate the legs (choice C) may be beneficial but should come after a thorough assessment. Obtaining a detailed dietary history (choice D) is relevant for heart failure management but is not the most urgent initial action when the client presents with acute symptoms like weight gain, leg swelling, and shortness of breath.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Crackles in the lungs
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Hepatomegaly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.

4. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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