HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare a sterile field. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse identify as contaminating the sterile field?
- A. The nurse opens the sterile field on a wet surface.
- B. The nurse turns away from the sterile field.
- C. The nurse uses a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field.
- D. The nurse touches the edge of the sterile drape with her hand.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Opening the sterile field on a wet surface contaminates it, rendering it unsafe for use. Moisture can carry microorganisms that can compromise the sterility of the field. Choice B is incorrect because turning away from the sterile field alone does not necessarily contaminate it unless the nurse touches non-sterile items. Choice C is incorrect because using a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field directly introduces contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as touching the edge of the sterile drape with a hand may not necessarily contaminate the entire field, unlike opening it on a wet surface.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
3. A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?
- A. I keep having nightmares about my upcoming surgery.
- B. I feel more energetic than I did before.
- C. I have been making plans for the future.
- D. I am looking forward to starting my new treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.
4. A nurse is collecting data from an older adult client as part of a neurologic examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect as changes associated with aging?
- A. Slower light touch sensation
- B. Some vision and hearing decline
- C. Slower fine finger movement
- D. Some short-term memory decline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: As individuals age, it is common to experience changes in vision and hearing, leading to some decline in these senses. Slower light touch sensation and slower fine finger movement are also typical findings associated with aging. However, some short-term memory decline is more closely related to cognitive aging rather than typical age-related changes in the neurologic system. Therefore, the correct answer is the decline in vision and hearing. Decreased risk of depression is not a typical finding in aging; in fact, the risk of depression may increase as individuals age.
5. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access