a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client about self administering heparin
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client about self-administering heparin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is typically administered in the abdomen for self-injection to avoid muscle tissue and for better absorption. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen provides a larger area for injection and is usually recommended for heparin administration. Administering heparin in the thigh, upper arm, or buttock may not be as effective or safe as the abdomen due to variations in absorption rates and potential risks associated with muscle injection.

2. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

3. A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission, the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively, the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with moderate persistent asthma experiencing a drop in peak flow and chest tightness post-operatively, the first action the nurse should take is to administer the PRN dose of Albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice A) can be done after initiating immediate treatment with Albuterol. Applying oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the bronchospasm with Albuterol is the priority. Repeating the peak flow reading (choice D) can be considered after administering Albuterol to assess the response to treatment.

4. A client is drawing up and mixing insulin under the observation of a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that psychomotor learning has taken place?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the ability to demonstrate the appropriate technique shows that the client has acquired the psychomotor skills needed for insulin preparation. Merely discussing, stating an understanding, or writing the steps does not confirm that the client can physically perform the task correctly. Being able to demonstrate indicates practical application and mastery of the skill. Choice A is incorrect because discussing the technique does not necessarily mean the client can physically perform it. Choice C is incorrect as stating an understanding does not guarantee the client's ability to perform the task. Choice D is incorrect because writing the steps does not assess the client's physical execution of the technique.

5. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.

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