HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.
2. A client returning from the surgical suite following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and asking for something to drink. Her post-op diet prescription reads: 'clear liquids, advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient?
- A. ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.''
- B. ''You need to wait until the surgeon evaluates your condition.''
- C. ''You can have clear liquids, but let me check with the surgeon first.''
- D. ''It is best to start with small sips of clear liquids and observe how you feel.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.'' Listening to the abdomen helps assess bowel sounds and ensure that the client’s gastrointestinal system is ready for oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because the client does not necessarily need to wait for the surgeon to evaluate before starting with clear liquids. Choice C is incorrect because unless there are specific contraindications, clear liquids are usually allowed after surgery. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate assessment needed before initiating oral intake post-operatively.
3. A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?
- A. “I had my immunizations as a child, so I’m protected in that area.”
- B. “It is important to schedule routine health care visits even if I am feeling well.”
- C. “I will go to an urgent care center for my routine medical care.”
- D. “There’s no reason to seek help if I am feeling stressed as it’s just part of life.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?
- A. After the acute phase of the disease has passed.
- B. As soon as the ability to move is lost.
- C. Once the patient enters the rehab unit.
- D. When the patient requests it.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.
5. During a home safety assessment for a client receiving supplemental oxygen, which observation should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?
- A. The client uses non-acetone nail polish remover.
- B. The client uses an electric razor for shaving.
- C. The client cleans their oxygen equipment weekly.
- D. The client uses wool blankets.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using non-acetone nail polish remover is crucial for clients on supplemental oxygen as acetone is flammable and poses a safety risk. Acetone can react with oxygen, increasing the fire hazard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Electric razors can generate sparks, which are dangerous near oxygen due to the risk of ignition. While cleaning oxygen equipment is important, the type of nail polish remover used is more critical for immediate safety. Wool blankets can create static electricity, increasing the risk of fire around oxygen due to its flammability.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access