Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.

2. A nurse in an outpatient surgical center is admitting a client for a laparoscopic procedure. The client has a prescription for preoperative diazepam. Prior to administering the medication, which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

• A. Teaching the client about the purpose of the medication
• B. Giving the medication at the administration time the provider prescribed
• C. Identifying the client’s medication allergies
• D. Documenting the client’s anxiety level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the client's medication allergies. This is the priority action before administering any medication to prevent allergic reactions or adverse effects. Teaching the client about the medication's purpose is important for client understanding but not as critical as ensuring the absence of allergies. While giving medication at the prescribed time is crucial, verifying allergies takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Documenting the client's anxiety level is relevant for holistic care but is not the priority compared to ensuring safe medication administration.

3. An assistive personnel says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. I get angry, and I think that the client is doing it just to get attention. I think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?

• A. You should report this to the supervisor
• B. It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress
• C. Diapers are the best solution
• D. The client’s condition is not your concern

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is 'It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.' In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the emotional impact of caregiving on the assistive personnel and address it professionally. Choice A is incorrect because reporting to the supervisor may not directly address the emotional concerns raised. Choice C is incorrect because immediately resorting to diapers without further assessment or intervention is not the most appropriate solution. Choice D is incorrect as the client's well-being and care are a shared responsibility among healthcare team members.

4. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?

• A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
• B. Hair growth in the axillae
• C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
• D. Deepening of the voice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

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