a nurse in a providers office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a clients thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client’s thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

2. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

3. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

4. When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, what action should the nurse take to protect the patient from injury?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for an unconscious patient, it is crucial to prevent choking and aspiration. Suctioning the oral cavity helps in removing secretions and preventing potential harm. Moisten the mouth using lemon-glycerin sponges may not effectively clear secretions. Holding the patient's mouth open with gloved fingers can cause discomfort and potential harm. Using foam swabs to remove plaque may not address the immediate risk of aspiration.

5. An assistive personnel says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. I get angry, and I think that the client is doing it just to get attention. I think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is 'It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.' In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the emotional impact of caregiving on the assistive personnel and address it professionally. Choice A is incorrect because reporting to the supervisor may not directly address the emotional concerns raised. Choice C is incorrect because immediately resorting to diapers without further assessment or intervention is not the most appropriate solution. Choice D is incorrect as the client's well-being and care are a shared responsibility among healthcare team members.

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