HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
2. Which nutritional assessment data should be collected to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?
- A. Height in inches or centimeters.
- B. Weight in kilograms or pounds.
- C. Triceps skinfold thickness.
- D. Upper arm circumference.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper arm circumference.' Upper arm circumference is a better indicator of total muscle mass in adolescents compared to height, weight, or triceps skinfold thickness. Triceps skinfold thickness primarily reflects subcutaneous fat, while weight and height are not specific to muscle mass. Upper arm circumference directly measures the muscle mass in the upper arm and can provide a more accurate assessment in this context. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect total muscle mass in adolescents.
3. A client is experiencing a severe sore throat, pain when swallowing, and swollen lymph nodes. Which of the following stages of infection is the client likely in?
- A. Prodromal
- B. Incubation
- C. Convalescence
- D. Illness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client in this scenario is in the illness stage of infection. During this stage, the individual exhibits specific symptoms such as a severe sore throat, pain when swallowing, and swollen lymph nodes. The prodromal stage precedes the appearance of specific symptoms and is characterized by nonspecific signs. The incubation period occurs between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of symptoms. Convalescence is the recovery period following the resolution of the infection. Therefore, the correct answer is 'D: Illness' as it aligns with the symptoms presented by the client.
4. A charge nurse is assigning client care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to a PN?
- A. Creating a plan of care for a client who is recovering following a stroke.
- B. Assessing a pressure injury on a client who is on bed rest.
- C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia.
- D. Teaching a client who has asthma to use a metered-dose inhaler.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia. This task falls within the practical nurse's scope of practice, as it involves direct patient care and basic interventions. Creating a plan of care for a client recovering from a stroke involves critical thinking and comprehensive assessment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses. Assessing a pressure injury requires specialized wound care knowledge, often performed by wound care specialists or registered nurses with wound care training. Teaching a client to use a metered-dose inhaler involves patient education and requires a thorough understanding of asthma management, making it more suitable for a registered nurse.
5. A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client’s bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Open the windows in the client’s room to allow smoke to escape.
- B. Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire.
- C. Remove all electrical equipment from the client’s room.
- D. Place wet towels along the base of the door to the client’s room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.
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