HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
2. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
3. The clinician is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing?
- A. Covering the wound with a dry dressing
- B. Using hydrogen peroxide soaks
- C. Leaving the area open to dry
- D. Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing is the most effective treatment to promote healing for a Stage 2 skin ulcer. These dressings create a moist environment that supports healing and prevents further tissue damage. Option A (covering the wound with a dry dressing) can lead to drying out the wound bed, hindering healing. Option B (using hydrogen peroxide soaks) can be too harsh and may damage the surrounding healthy tissue. Option C (leaving the area open to dry) can delay healing as it does not provide the necessary moist environment for optimal wound healing.
4. A client is prescribed a buccal medication. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to take this medication?
- A. “I will first dissolve the tablet in water.”
- B. “I will insert the tablet between my cheek and teeth.”
- C. “I will place the tablet under my tongue.”
- D. “I will chew the tablet.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct way to take buccal medications is to insert the tablet between the cheek and gums where it will dissolve slowly. Option A is incorrect because buccal medications are not meant to be dissolved in water. Option C is incorrect as sublingual medications are placed under the tongue. Option D is incorrect because chewing a buccal tablet is not the correct administration method.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Inject the medication into the muscle.
- D. Pinch the skin before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, which means it should be injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Administering enoxaparin at a 90-degree angle ensures proper absorption and reduces the risk of injecting the medication into muscle tissue, which could affect its effectiveness. Injecting the medication at a 45-degree angle may lead to improper absorption as it may not reach the subcutaneous tissue adequately. Injecting the medication into the muscle instead of subcutaneously can alter the absorption rate and therapeutic effects. Pinching the skin before injecting is not necessary for administering enoxaparin subcutaneously and may cause unnecessary discomfort to the client.
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