Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

2. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

3. A client returning from the surgical suite following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and asking for something to drink. Her post-op diet prescription reads: 'clear liquids, advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient?

• A. ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.''
• B. ''You need to wait until the surgeon evaluates your condition.''
• C. ''You can have clear liquids, but let me check with the surgeon first.''
• D. ''It is best to start with small sips of clear liquids and observe how you feel.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.'' Listening to the abdomen helps assess bowel sounds and ensure that the client’s gastrointestinal system is ready for oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because the client does not necessarily need to wait for the surgeon to evaluate before starting with clear liquids. Choice C is incorrect because unless there are specific contraindications, clear liquids are usually allowed after surgery. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate assessment needed before initiating oral intake post-operatively.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Draw up each medication separately in the syringe.
• C. Push the syringe plunger gently if feeling resistance.
• D. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering multiple medications to a client with an enteral feeding tube is to flush the tube with 15-30 mL of sterile water before and between medications, and 30-60 mL after the last medication. This helps prevent clogging and ensures each medication is delivered effectively. Choice A is incorrect as medications should not be dissolved in water for administration through an enteral feeding tube. Choice B is incorrect because each medication should be drawn up and administered separately to prevent any potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as resistance while pushing the plunger may indicate a problem that needs to be addressed before continuing with the administration.

5. A patient requires repositioning every 2 hours. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel?

• A. Determining the level of comfort
• B. Changing the patient's position
• C. Identifying immobility hazards
• D. Assessing circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Changing the patient's position.' Repositioning the patient involves physically moving and adjusting their position in bed, which is a task that can be safely delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP). This task does not require clinical judgment or assessment skills beyond the ability to follow guidelines for proper positioning. Choices A, C, and D involve assessments or judgments that require a higher level of training and knowledge, making them more appropriate for a nurse to perform. Choice A involves assessing comfort, which may involve subjective factors and individual preferences. Choice C involves identifying hazards related to immobility, which requires understanding the potential risks and complications associated with immobility. Choice D involves assessing circulation, which requires a higher level of clinical knowledge and understanding of circulatory issues.

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