HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is assisting the recreational director of a long-term care facility in planning outdoor activities for the wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. Which activity meets the physical and social needs of these residents?
- A. An open-air concert
- B. A tea party in the courtyard
- C. A team ring-toss competition
- D. A picnic in the park
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A tea party in the courtyard provides a social and physical activity suitable for wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. It offers an opportunity for social interaction, enjoyment of the outdoors, and participation in a physical activity without the need for extensive mobility. An open-air concert may not provide the same level of social interaction or physical engagement as a tea party. A team ring-toss competition may be physically challenging for wheelchair-bound residents. A picnic in the park could present challenges related to accessibility and might not foster the same level of social interaction as a tea party in a more contained courtyard setting.
2. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
4. The nurse determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Protect the client's feet from injury
- B. Apply a heating pad to affected area
- C. Keep the client's feet elevated
- D. Assess the feet and legs for jaundice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is essential when managing peripheral neuropathy in a client with cirrhosis. Peripheral neuropathy can result in reduced sensation, increasing the risk of injury. Applying a heating pad or keeping the client's feet elevated would not address the primary concern of preventing injury. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice is important for monitoring liver function, but it is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy in this case.
5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
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