Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

• A. Oxygen transport
• B. Immunity
• C. Blood clotting
• D. Carbon dioxide transport

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen transport. Hemoglobin in red blood cells binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to tissues throughout the body, releasing it where needed. This process is essential for cellular respiration and energy production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin's primary function is not related to immunity, blood clotting, or carbon dioxide transport. Hemoglobin's main role is to transport oxygen, ensuring adequate oxygen supply to body tissues for metabolic processes.

2. When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?

• A. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload.
• B. Ensuring the client receives enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
• C. Preventing electrolyte imbalances.
• D. Maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.

3. A client on bedrest refuses to wear the prescribed pneumatic compression devices after surgery. Which action should the PN implement in response to the client's refusal?

• A. Emphasize the importance of active foot flexion
• B. Check the surgical dressing
• C. Complete an incident report
• D. Explain the use of an incentive spirometer every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement when a client refuses pneumatic compression devices is to emphasize the importance of active foot flexion. Active foot flexion exercises can help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in clients who are not using the compression devices. Encouraging some form of circulation-promoting activity is crucial to reduce the risks associated with immobility. Checking the surgical dressing (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action to address the refusal of compression devices. Completing an incident report (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the client's refusal is not an incident. Explaining the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the refusal of compression devices for DVT prevention.

4. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?

• A. Reduces brain metabolism and systemic blood pressure
• B. Reduces cerebral edema
• C. Dehydrates the brain
• D. Draws fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.

5. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

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