Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

2. When documenting information in a client's medical record, what should the nurse do?

• A. Cross out errors with a single line and initial them
• B. Use a black ink pen
• C. Leave one line blank before each new entry
• D. End each entry with the nurse's signature and title

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When documenting information in a client's medical record, the nurse should end each entry with their signature and title. This practice is crucial for legal and professional standards compliance as it ensures that the documentation is attributable to the responsible individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while crossing out errors, using a black ink pen, and leaving a blank line before each entry are good practices, they are not as critical as ensuring each entry is signed and titled by the nurse for accountability and traceability.

3. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

4. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

5. An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the PN?

• A. No bowel movement for two days
• B. Mother assists child in changing positions
• C. Weights are touching the foot of the bed
• D. Child is able to move the toes freely when tickled

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In 90-90 traction, it is crucial to ensure that the weights are not touching the foot of the bed as this can disrupt the effective application of traction. This interference can hinder the proper alignment of the fractured femur and impede the healing process. Therefore, this finding requires immediate action to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the proper application of traction and do not pose a risk to the patient's treatment or well-being. No bowel movement for two days may indicate constipation but does not directly relate to the traction. Mother assisting the child in changing positions is a supportive action. The child being able to move the toes freely when tickled indicates neurological function, which is a positive sign.

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