the pn is reviewing care instructions with a client who has diabetic retinopathy and is experiencing glare around lights what should the pn reinforce
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. The PN is reviewing care instructions with a client who has diabetic retinopathy and is experiencing glare around lights. What should the PN reinforce with the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding driving at night is recommended for clients experiencing glare around lights due to diabetic retinopathy. This can help reduce the risk of accidents and visual discomfort. Making adjustments to the personal schedule to avoid nighttime driving is a practical approach to manage the glare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because covering eyes with compresses, exerting pressure on the inner canthus, or applying an eye shield are not effective strategies for managing glare associated with diabetic retinopathy.

2. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.

3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy has developed stomatitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is assisting with the care of this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing gentle and meticulous mouth care is critical for a client with stomatitis as it helps prevent further irritation and infection of the mucous membranes. Keeping the room environment free of unpleasant odors (Choice A) is important for the client's comfort but not directly related to managing stomatitis. Gathering supplies for protective environmental precautions (Choice B) is not relevant to addressing stomatitis. Assisting the client with feeding at meal times (Choice C) is important for overall care but does not specifically target the care needed for stomatitis.

4. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.

5. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.

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