based on the principle of asepsis the pn should consider which situation to be sterile
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HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

2. A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.

3. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.

4. Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.

5. The PN observes a UAP preparing to exit a client's room. The UAP's hands appear visibly soiled as the UAP uses a hand rub for 19 seconds to cleanse the hands. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, they should be washed with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. However, when using hand rub, it should be applied for at least 30 seconds to be effective. In this scenario, the UAP's hands were visibly soiled, indicating the need for thorough cleaning. Advising the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds is essential to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because confirming completion of hand hygiene, instructing to wash for one minute, or asking why the hands were soiled do not address the immediate need for proper hand hygiene in the given situation.

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