a client who is at full term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg which intervention should the nurse implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client in active labor complaining of a leg cramp is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps stretch the muscles that are cramping, providing relief. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective for relieving the cramp. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not indicated for a leg cramp. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg (Choice C) is unrelated to addressing the leg cramp.

2. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the PN to review?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important lab value to review before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity. This is because serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired renal function, and administering nephrotoxic drugs in such situations can further damage the kidneys. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps healthcare providers assess renal function and make informed decisions regarding drug administration. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity, making them less crucial in this scenario. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels are more related to bone health and nerve function, and WBC count is associated with immune response, none of which directly reflect kidney function or the risk of nephrotoxicity.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, or the repetition of words, is indicative of disturbed thought processes, a common symptom in clients with schizophrenia. Choice A (Altered thought processes) is a more appropriate term than 'Disturbed thought processes' to describe the issue of echolalia. Choice B (Impaired social interaction) is not the best option in this scenario as echolalia is not primarily a social interaction issue. Choice C (Risk for self-directed violence) is not directly related to the symptom described in the question, which is echolalia, indicating a disturbance in thought processes.

4. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

5. The client diagnosed with HIV is taught by the nurse that the condition is transmitted through

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HIV can be transmitted from a mother to her baby during childbirth or breastfeeding, making choice A the correct answer. Tears, human bites, and insect bites are not common modes of HIV transmission. While human bites can potentially transmit the virus, it is less common compared to mother-to-child transmission.

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