HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client is admitted to a long-term care facility, and the nurse and a new employee are conducting medication reconciliation. The nurse notes that oxybutynin has been prescribed. The nurse realizes the new employee understands the drug's effect if the new employee explains that this medication is prescribed to treat which condition?
- A. Pain
- B. Depression
- C. Overactive bladder
- D. Chronic anxiety
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Overactive bladder. Oxybutynin is prescribed to treat overactive bladder by reducing muscle spasms of the bladder. It is classified as an anticholinergic medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxycodone is an opioid used for pain management. Bupropion is an antidepressant used to treat depression. Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to manage anxiety disorders.
2. How does omeprazole work in treating a peptic ulcer?
- A. Increasing the production of gastric acid
- B. Neutralizing stomach acid
- C. Coating the stomach lining
- D. Reducing gastric acid secretion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for pumping acid into the stomach, omeprazole helps decrease the acidity level in the stomach, providing relief from peptic ulcers. Option A is incorrect because omeprazole does not increase gastric acid production; instead, it decreases it. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize existing stomach acid but rather reduces its secretion. Option C is incorrect as omeprazole does not coat the stomach lining but acts on reducing acid secretion.
3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.
4. A client who received a renal transplant three months ago is readmitted to the acute care unit with signs of graft rejection. While taking the client's history, the nurse determines the client has been self-administering St. John's wort, an herbal preparation, on the advice of a friend. What information is most significant about this finding?
- A. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Cyclospora
- B. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Tacrolimus
- C. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Cyclosporine
- D. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Mycophenolate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most significant information about the client self-administering St. John's wort, an herbal preparation, is that it can decrease the plasma concentration of Cyclosporine. St. John's wort is known to reduce the efficacy of Cyclosporine, which is a common immunosuppressant drug used to prevent transplant rejection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because St. John's wort does not affect the plasma concentration of Cyclospora, Tacrolimus, or Mycophenolate.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
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