Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a long-term care facility, and the nurse and a new employee are conducting medication reconciliation. The nurse notes that oxybutynin has been prescribed. The nurse realizes the new employee understands the drug's effect if the new employee explains that this medication is prescribed to treat which condition?

• A. Pain
• B. Depression
• C. Overactive bladder
• D. Chronic anxiety

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Overactive bladder. Oxybutynin is prescribed to treat overactive bladder by reducing muscle spasms of the bladder. It is classified as an anticholinergic medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxycodone is an opioid used for pain management. Bupropion is an antidepressant used to treat depression. Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to manage anxiety disorders.

2. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?

• A. Enuresis
• B. Lethargy
• C. Depression
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.

3. When educating a client about the adverse effects of conjunctivitis, what is a serious condition that requires prompt attention?

• A. Contact lens irritation
• B. Decreased sex drive
• C. Brown spots on the skin
• D. Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids is a concerning symptom that may indicate a more serious underlying condition such as a perforated ulcer. This symptom requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.

4. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

5. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol
• B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Take medication with grapefruit juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.

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