Nursing Elites

1. Jansen is receiving metformin (Glucophage). What will be the best plan of the nurse with regard to patient education with this drug? Select one that does not apply.

• A. It stimulates the pancreas to produce more insulin.
• B. It must be taken after meals.
• C. It decreases sugar production in the liver.
• D. It inhibits absorption of carbohydrates.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct choice that does not apply is A. Metformin does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin; instead, it works by decreasing sugar production in the liver, inhibiting carbohydrate absorption, and reducing insulin resistance. It is recommended to take metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not inhibit the absorption of carbohydrates.

2. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?

• A. Vernix.
• B. Lanugo.
• C. Milia.
• D. Vibrissae.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with giant cell arthritis. What medication will this patient most likely be given?

• A. High doses of aspirin
• B. High doses of prednisone
• C. Methotrexate
• D. Albuterol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High doses of prednisone are commonly prescribed for giant cell arthritis to reduce inflammation. Aspirin is not typically used for this condition. Methotrexate is more commonly used for conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, not giant cell arthritis. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for respiratory conditions, not for giant cell arthritis.

4. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

5. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?

• A. An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration
• B. A male patient with hypothyroidism
• C. A male patient with hyperthyroidism
• D. An adolescent with a closed head injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.

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