Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

• A. Insulin overdose
• B. Removal of the adrenal gland
• C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
• D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

2. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?

• A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
• B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
• C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
• D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.

3. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
• B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
• C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
• D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to care for a client who arrived via ambulance. The client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Proceed with treatment without obtaining written consent
• B. Contact the client's next of kin to obtain consent for treatment
• C. Have the client sign a consent for treatment
• D. Notify risk management before initiating treatment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia, obtaining written consent may not be possible due to the urgency of the situation. The priority is to provide immediate treatment to ensure patient safety. Contacting the next of kin or having the client sign a consent form would cause unnecessary delays in providing critical care. Notifying risk management before initiating treatment is not the most appropriate action when dealing with a time-sensitive situation like a cardiac arrhythmia.

5. A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Remove the restraints from the client's wrists
• B. Review the chart for nonrestraint alternatives for agitation
• C. Speak with the AP about the incident
• D. Inform the unit manager of the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.

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