Nursing Elites

1. What is a major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs)?

• A. Increased paperwork
• B. Better coordination of care
• C. Higher risk of data breaches
• D. More manual data entry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs) is better coordination of care. EHRs allow healthcare providers to access and share patient information more efficiently, leading to improved coordination and continuity of care. Choice A, increased paperwork, is incorrect as EHRs aim to reduce paperwork by digitizing and centralizing health records. Choice C, higher risk of data breaches, is incorrect as EHRs have security measures in place to protect patient data. Choice D, more manual data entry, is incorrect as EHRs aim to automate and streamline data entry processes.

2. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?

• A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
• B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
• C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
• D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.

3. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

4. A nurse at a long-term care facility is planning a fall prevention program for the residents. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply vest restraints to residents who are confused
• B. Keep all four side rails up on beds at night
• C. Accompany residents over 85 years of age during ambulation
• D. Implement rounds every 2 hours during the day to offer toileting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement rounds every 2 hours during the day to offer toileting. This intervention helps prevent falls by addressing the common cause of unassisted mobility, which is the need to use the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be the first choice for fall prevention due to the risk of injury and loss of independence. Choice B is incorrect because all side rails up can lead to entrapment and should only be used based on individualized assessments. Choice C may not be feasible for all residents over 85 years old and does not directly address the risk of falls.

5. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

• A. The fourth cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
• B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
• C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
• D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.

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