Nursing Elites

1. What is a major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs)?

• A. Increased paperwork
• B. Better coordination of care
• C. Higher risk of data breaches
• D. More manual data entry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs) is better coordination of care. EHRs allow healthcare providers to access and share patient information more efficiently, leading to improved coordination and continuity of care. Choice A, increased paperwork, is incorrect as EHRs aim to reduce paperwork by digitizing and centralizing health records. Choice C, higher risk of data breaches, is incorrect as EHRs have security measures in place to protect patient data. Choice D, more manual data entry, is incorrect as EHRs aim to automate and streamline data entry processes.

2. Dr. Shrunk orders intravenous (IV) insulin for Rita, a client with a blood sugar of 563. Nurse AJ administers insulin lispro (Humalog) intravenously (IV). What does the best evaluation of the nurse reveal? Select one that does not apply.

• A. The nurse could have given the insulin subcutaneously.
• B. The nurse did not have to contact the physician.
• C. The nurse should have used regular insulin (Humulin R).
• D. The nurse used the correct insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best evaluation of the nurse reveals that she should have used regular insulin (Humulin R) for IV administration. Regular insulin is the only insulin approved for intravenous administration due to its pharmacokinetic properties. Insulin lispro (Humalog) is not suitable for IV use. Choice A is incorrect because giving insulin intravenously is necessary in this case of high blood sugar. Choice B is incorrect because administering a different insulin without consulting the physician is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse used the incorrect insulin, which could pose risks to the client's health.

3. The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute hypernatremia. What should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (select one that does not apply)

• A. Reduce IV access
• B. Limit length of visits
• C. Restrict fluids to 1500 mL per day
• D. Conduct frequent neurologic checks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with acute hypernatremia, the nurse should include interventions like reducing free water losses, correcting sodium levels slowly, monitoring neurologic status, and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Conducting frequent neurologic checks is essential in assessing the patient's neurological status and detecting any changes promptly. Therefore, this action should not be excluded from the plan of care. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to managing acute hypernatremia and can be safely excluded from the plan of care. Reducing IV access, limiting length of visits, and restricting fluids to 1500 mL per day are not appropriate actions for managing acute hypernatremia.

4. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

5. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

• A. The fourth cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
• B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
• C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
• D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.

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