HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.
- A. Radicular pain: Pain shooting down the leg from a herniated disc
- B. Central neuropathic pain: Pain from nerve damage after a stroke
- C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: Pain from diabetic neuropathy in the feet
- D. Chronic pain: Pain lasting for more than 3-6 months
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.
2. Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a 'need to know'? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient
- B. Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient
- C. The Vice President for nursing who is investigating a patient fall
- D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Student nurses, licensed practical nurses, the Vice President for nursing investigating a fall, and quality assurance nurses have a 'need to know' basis to access patient records. Registered nurses who are not directly involved in the care of a patient do not have a legitimate reason or 'need to know' to access that patient's medical records, making choice B the correct answer. The Vice President for nursing investigating a specific incident and licensed practical nurses directly involved in a patient's care have legitimate reasons to access the medical records, ensuring continuity and quality of care.
3. Which of the following is the best way to improve nursing's image?
- A. Uniforms should reflect your professionalism.
- B. Introduce yourself with your full name.
- C. Understand the essence of professional behavior in your practice.
- D. Take every opportunity to speak to the public about nursing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because taking every chance to engage with the public about nursing allows for the improvement of nursing's image and the promotion of the profession. Choice A is incorrect as uniforms should reflect professionalism rather than personality. Choice B is not directly related to improving nursing's image. Choice C, while important, does not directly address improving the image of nursing through public engagement.
4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician, and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Peas
- B. Cauliflower
- C. Low-fat yogurt
- D. Processed oat cereals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is processed oat cereals. Processed oat cereals are often high in sodium content, which should be avoided in cases of hypernatremia. Peas, cauliflower, and low-fat yogurt are generally low in sodium and are not typically contraindicated in hypernatremia. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
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