Nursing Elites

1. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.

• A. Radicular pain: Pain shooting down the leg from a herniated disc
• B. Central neuropathic pain: Pain from nerve damage after a stroke
• C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: Pain from diabetic neuropathy in the feet
• D. Chronic pain: Pain lasting for more than 3-6 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.

2. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

4. Which statement about adjuvant medications is true and accurate?

• A. Licensed practical nurses can administer adjuvant medications.
• B. Adjuvant medications are schedule 2 narcotics.
• C. Adjuvant medications are schedule 1 narcotics.
• D. Adjuvant medications can be purchased over the counter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because adjuvant medications are often available over the counter without a prescription. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because licensed practical nurses can administer adjuvant medications depending on their scope of practice. Choices B and C are incorrect because adjuvant medications are not classified as schedule 1 or schedule 2 narcotics.

5. A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Remove the restraints from the client's wrists
• B. Review the chart for nonrestraint alternatives for agitation
• C. Speak with the AP about the incident
• D. Inform the unit manager of the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.

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