Nursing Elites

1. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.

• A. Radicular pain: Pain shooting down the leg from a herniated disc
• B. Central neuropathic pain: Pain from nerve damage after a stroke
• C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: Pain from diabetic neuropathy in the feet
• D. Chronic pain: Pain lasting for more than 3-6 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.

2. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

3. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:

• A. Reduces the potential pain in the wound region or area.
• B. Stops the spread of infection by creating a 'clean' area.
• C. Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
• D. Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because wound irrigation allows for the introduction of medications in solution form to the wound site. Choice A is incorrect because while wound irrigation can help with pain management indirectly by promoting healing, its primary purpose is not to reduce pain directly. Choice B is incorrect as wound irrigation primarily aims to cleanse the wound and remove contaminants rather than creating a 'clean' area to stop infection spread. Choice C is incorrect because wound irrigation does not involve pushing extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue; its main goal is to cleanse the wound and promote healing.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of chlamydia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Report the infection to the local health department
• B. Apply an antiviral cream to lesions
• C. Instruct the client to use condoms until the treatment is completed
• D. Initiate contact precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the infection to the local health department. Chlamydia is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities for tracking and control measures. Choice B is incorrect because chlamydia is a bacterial infection, not a viral infection, so antiviral cream would not be effective. Choice C is important advice for preventing the spread of chlamydia but is not the priority in this scenario. Choice D is not necessary for chlamydia, as it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact.

5. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

• A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
• B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
• C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
• D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

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