HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.
- A. Radicular pain: Pain shooting down the leg from a herniated disc
- B. Central neuropathic pain: Pain from nerve damage after a stroke
- C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: Pain from diabetic neuropathy in the feet
- D. Chronic pain: Pain lasting for more than 3-6 months
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.
2. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?
- A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
- B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
- C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
- D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.
3. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?
- A. The client with renal failure
- B. The client who is taking diuretics
- C. The client with hyperaldosteronism
- D. The client who is taking corticosteroids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.
4. A charge nurse on an obstetrical unit is preparing the shift assignment. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an RN who has floated from a medical-surgical unit?
- A. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has premature rupture of membranes
- B. A multigravida client who has preeclampsia and is receiving misoprostol for induction of labor
- C. A primigravida client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump
- D. A client who has gestational diabetes and is receiving biweekly nonstress tests
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A nurse who floated from a medical-surgical unit would be appropriate to care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump. This client requires monitoring of the postoperative incision site, pain management through the PCA pump, and assessment for any signs of complications related to the surgery. Assigning this client to an RN with experience in postoperative care aligns with providing specialized and appropriate care. Choices A, B, and D involve conditions or procedures specific to obstetrics that would be better managed by a nurse with obstetrical experience, making them incorrect choices for the floated RN.
5. Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).
- A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
- B. The icteric stage: Flu-like symptoms occur
- C. The pre-icteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
- D. The post-icteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The post-icteric stage of viral hepatitis is accurately described as the stage where jaundice and dark urine occur due to the accumulation of bilirubin. The resolution of jaundice and normalization of urine color are seen in this stage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. In the prodromal stage, symptoms like fatigue and malaise appear before jaundice. The icteric stage is characterized by jaundice, not flu-like symptoms. The pre-icteric stage does not typically involve elevated urine bilirubin levels, as this occurs after the icteric stage.
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