Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?

• A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs.
• B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality.
• C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
• D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.

2. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who requires home oxygen. The equipment company has not yet delivered the oxygen tank. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Send an oxygen tank from the facility home with the client
• B. Instruct the client's family to contact the insurance provider about the oxygen equipment
• C. Contact social services about the delivery of the oxygen equipment
• D. Notify the provider about the delayed oxygen tank delivery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact social services about the delivery of the oxygen equipment. This ensures that the necessary equipment is delivered to the client's home promptly. Choice A is incorrect because sending an oxygen tank from the facility is not a sustainable solution and may lead to legal and safety issues. Choice B is incorrect as contacting the insurance provider is not the appropriate course of action to address the delayed delivery. Choice D is also incorrect because notifying the provider about the delay may not directly lead to the timely delivery of the oxygen equipment.

3. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to care for a client who arrived via ambulance. The client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Proceed with treatment without obtaining written consent
• B. Contact the client's next of kin to obtain consent for treatment
• C. Have the client sign a consent for treatment
• D. Notify risk management before initiating treatment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia, obtaining written consent may not be possible due to the urgency of the situation. The priority is to provide immediate treatment to ensure patient safety. Contacting the next of kin or having the client sign a consent form would cause unnecessary delays in providing critical care. Notifying risk management before initiating treatment is not the most appropriate action when dealing with a time-sensitive situation like a cardiac arrhythmia.

5. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
• B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
• C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
• D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

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