HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
- A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
- B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
- C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
- D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.
2. A nurse in a clinic is reviewing laboratory reports for a group of clients. Which of the following diseases should the nurse report to the state health department?
- A. Pertussis
- B. Group B streptococcal disease
- C. Respiratory syncytial virus
- D. Rotavirus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pertussis is the correct answer because it is a reportable disease that healthcare providers are required by law to report to public health authorities. This infectious disease poses a significant public health risk and needs to be monitored closely to prevent outbreaks and implement control measures. Group B streptococcal disease, Respiratory syncytial virus, and Rotavirus are important conditions but are not typically reportable to the state health department. These diseases may require specific precautions in healthcare settings, but they do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements.
3. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
- A. 30 drops per minute
- B. 25 drops per minute
- C. 20 drops per minute
- D. 22 drops per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
4. What is the primary focus of primary healthcare?
- A. Emergency care
- B. Preventive care
- C. Specialized treatment
- D. Hospital-based services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preventive care. Primary healthcare emphasizes preventive care, which includes promoting overall health, preventing diseases, and providing early intervention to avoid the progression of illnesses. Emergency care (choice A) is focused on immediate medical attention for urgent health situations but is not the primary focus of primary healthcare. Specialized treatment (choice C) refers to care provided by specialists for specific health conditions, which is not the main focus of primary healthcare. Hospital-based services (choice D) involve inpatient care provided in a hospital setting, which is not the primary focus of primary healthcare that aims to provide comprehensive and accessible care at the community level.
5. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
- B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
- C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
- D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.
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