Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following nursing interventions should be taken for a client who complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking his glyburide (DiaBeta)?

• A. Administer glyburide again
• B. Administer subcutaneous insulin and monitor blood glucose
• C. Monitor blood glucose closely, and look for signs of hypoglycemia
• D. Monitor blood glucose and assess for signs of hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking glyburide, the priority nursing intervention should be to monitor blood glucose closely and look for signs of hypoglycemia. Vomiting could indicate that the glyburide was not properly absorbed, potentially leading to hypoglycemia. Administering glyburide again (Choice A) could worsen hypoglycemia. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate without assessing the blood glucose first. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the immediate concern in this situation.

2. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?

• A. No change
• B. Less insulin
• C. More insulin
• D. Oral antidiabetic agents

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.

3. A charge nurse on an obstetrical unit is preparing the shift assignment. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an RN who has floated from a medical-surgical unit?

• A. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has premature rupture of membranes
• B. A multigravida client who has preeclampsia and is receiving misoprostol for induction of labor
• C. A primigravida client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump
• D. A client who has gestational diabetes and is receiving biweekly nonstress tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A nurse who floated from a medical-surgical unit would be appropriate to care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump. This client requires monitoring of the postoperative incision site, pain management through the PCA pump, and assessment for any signs of complications related to the surgery. Assigning this client to an RN with experience in postoperative care aligns with providing specialized and appropriate care. Choices A, B, and D involve conditions or procedures specific to obstetrics that would be better managed by a nurse with obstetrical experience, making them incorrect choices for the floated RN.

4. Select the criteria that is accurately paired with its indication of birth weight or gestational age.

• A. Low birth weight: The neonate's weight is less than 1,500 g at the time of delivery.
• B. Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate's weight ranges from the 10th to the 90th percentile.
• C. Large for gestational age: The neonate's weight is above the 99th percentile.
• D. Small for gestational age: The neonate's weight is below the 20th percentile.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) indicates a neonate's weight ranging from the 10th to the 90th percentile. This range signifies that the baby's weight is within the normal range for their gestational age. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about the criteria and do not correctly correspond to the indicated birth weight or gestational age. Low birth weight typically refers to a weight below 2,500 g, large for gestational age above the 90th percentile, and small for gestational age below the 10th percentile.

5. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

• A. Insulin overdose
• B. Removal of the adrenal gland
• C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
• D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

Similar Questions