Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is leading a discussion about ethical dilemmas. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager include as an example of an ethical dilemma?

• A. A visitor experiences a minor burn after spilling coffee
• B. A client receives an operation on the wrong side of her body
• C. A parent wants her 14-year-old adolescent to receive radiation treatment against his will
• D. A nurse witnesses another nurse administer an incorrect medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ethical dilemma involves a situation where moral principles conflict, such as in the case of a parent wanting their adolescent to receive treatment against their will. In option A, a minor burn from spilled coffee does not present a conflict of moral principles. Option B describes a medical error, not necessarily a conflict of moral principles. Option D involves an issue of professional practice and patient safety but does not inherently pose a conflict of moral principles.

2. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

3. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

4. What does the mnemonic device ABCDE stand for?

• A. Allergy, bleeding, chemicals, dietary, environment
• B. Allergy, bleeding, cardio, diabetes, endocrine
• C. Allergy, bleeding, cardio, digestive, endocrine
• D. Allergy, bleeding, cortisone, diabetes, emboli

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Allergy, bleeding, cortisone, diabetes, emboli.' The ABCDE mnemonic is used in healthcare to help remember key assessment points. Choice A is incorrect as 'chemicals' and 'dietary' are not part of the ABCDE assessment. Choice B is incorrect as 'cardio' is not part of the ABCDE mnemonic. Choice C is incorrect as 'cardio' and 'digestive' are not part of the ABCDE mnemonic.

5. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?

• A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
• B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
• C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
• D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.

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